Nope... the body of Christ has no priesthood. If it did, Paul would have told us about it.
That's like asking if Jesus could have chosen to sin.
NIV, NLT,ESV, BSB, NKJV, etc. all say faith in Jesus Christ. The only one I found that translated it of Jesus Christ is the KJV. That is because it is
If you are trying to show me what scripture is actually saying, and assume you know what I think it means, then you have to do more than simply quote the scripture. The scripture quoted will mean to me the same thing as it did before you quoted it.
There are many faiths in the Bible. It all depends on what God is telling them at the time. Noah had faith and it was not the same as Abraham's... etc. etc. all through history.
Then I take that as a yes.
I don't care how others see it. It's very clear from the Bible.
But Jesus said "The kingdom of God does not come with observation; nor will they say "See here!" or "See there!" For indeed, the kingdom of God is within you." Where does Jesus say that He came to restore the earthly kingdom to Israel?
Uh, yeah, you did.
The book of Acts is a historical account of the growth of the early church.
Probably because He didn't need to. That is not what He was teaching at that time. He was revealing who He is and what He was going to do.
So what?
The word charis (grace) is used 10 times by Peter in 1 Peter alone. It is mentioned once in Luke and six times in John. But that is not really the issue. No one is ever saved but for the grace of God. He owes no one anything.
There is good news and bad news in the Bible. ONE thing goes by the name the GOSPEL. It is eternal life purchased for those who believe by the shed blood of Jesus. This was done for us by the grace of God. John 1:17 For the law was given by Moses. Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. It is through the blood of Christ and the sacrifice of His body that we come boldly before His throne of grace to receive mercy in our time of need.
What? You're sounding dispensational.
It goes without saying that Jesus had faith. But that is not what the scripture is saying---it doesn't need said.
Do you think we are justified by Jesus' faith? The faith we have to believe in the person and work of Jesus, is given to us by God Himself. My Bible(s) don' remove anything.
The explanation you are responding to is about "faith to faith" so why are you talking agan about Rom 3:22? And you do care how others see it, even when you decide to stick strictly to the KJV. Those were people who translated it. The KJV, because of the old English language used is sometimes confusing and hard to follow. All the other translations did was put it in a more modern, therefore more easily understood way. We know from repeated scriptures that we are saved by faith in Christ. Nowhere but there and only in the KJV does it translate that word "of".
Well, that's pretty important, but even then the great thing about TOL is that we'll get to that. We'll find you out, if you don't believe. And then we'll talk about that, we'll argue and attempt to persuade you to believe, because of . . . reasons. We all have reasons. To believe.
It was all FAITH IN GOD.
Yes but the evidence is consistent with that He knew that that was going to happen beforehand, and that therefore there was a different plan afoot from the beginning, in anticipation of His rejection.
Well certainly, when He returns all questions are answered; we all believe that.
He came to set up HIS KINGDOM. Not Israel's kingdom.
No it's not. You don't like my characterization of it, but it is not because I misunderstand it. I was a convicted Calvinist for many years; I know Calvinism from the inside.
So you have to be of the position that if someone apparently 'loses' their faith then they never really had it to begin with. No other option.
But he never used that term in his epistles.
How dare you say such a thing about Right Divider!
