ECT Who is saved?

oatmeal

oatmeal

Well-known member
All people receive the gift of salvation in this age of grace the same way.

By meeting the two requirements of Romans 10:9-10

There is no difference Judeans and Gentiles, all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.
 
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oatmeal said:
All people receive the gift of salvation in this age of grace the same way.

By meeting the two requirements of Romans 10:9-10

There is no difference Judeans and Gentiles, all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.
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What is wrong with believing that redemption is the gift of God made effective by man's 'positive' response to it when understood?
 
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oatmeal said:
I believe I understand your point and I agree. That is what Romans 10:9-10 is all about
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Yes! However, is the "salvation" of one by believing, and the new birth from above, the same "event" in that one's life? I am not saying it can't be but what else must take place that will reveal it, do you think?
 
God's Truth

God's Truth

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oatmeal said:
All people receive the gift of salvation in this age of grace the same way.

By meeting the two requirements of Romans 10:9-10

There is no difference Judeans and Gentiles, all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.
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Your problem is that you go against what Romans means in those scriptures.

You have fallen for a false teaching called faith alone.
 
heir

heir

TOL Subscriber
oatmeal said:
All people receive the gift of salvation in this age of grace the same way.
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Anyone can be saved today by trusting the Lord after that they hear the word of truth, the gospel of our salvation (which is 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV); in Whom also after that they believe, they are sealed with that Holy Spirit of promise according to the formula for salvation (Ephesians 1:13 KJV).
 
turbosixx

turbosixx

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heir said:
We are partakers by the gospel (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV, Ephesians 3:6 KJV) while Israel will only be partakers if they hold the beginning of their confidence stedfast unto the end (Hebrews 3:14 KJV).
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In Eph. 3:6, who are the Gentiles fellowheirs with?
 
turbosixx

turbosixx

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heir said:
You mean you explain away passages that are contrary to one another.
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I don’t see any passages that are contrary. I personally don’t take a few verses here and one there and then from those build a concept. Then take that concept and realize it’s contrary to other passages. The word is from one source and throughout scripture it calls for unity, not division.


heir said:
Acts 10:35 KJV vs. Titus 3:5 KJV is one.
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Are you implying that Peter is saying they must earn salvation through their righteousness?

You say these are contrary but I suggest to you they are not. They are talking about different things. In Titus salvation is mentioned, so it’s clear he’s talking about that. In Acts 10:35, Peter is talking about WHO God will save. Up to this point, Peter understands only Jews are God’s people. The prior verse makes that clear:
Acts 10:34 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:
Then in the verse after, he begins giving them the word that will save them:
10: 36 The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (he is Lord of all):


heir said:
when not believing what it says and to whom must be explained away by those who make the Bible a one pot meal to all.
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I believe exactly what it says and do not have to explain anything away? There is one gospel that is for all.

Paul made it clear Jews and Gentiles are in the same boat and both need a savior.
Romans 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:
 
turbosixx

turbosixx

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Danoh said:
I'll say this to you turbo, well aware by now from you yourself, that you do not easily crumble to having a possible error on your part, being pointed out to you.

I wish more were like that.

Anyway, what you say there is merely because you are reading a Bible that was first translated into English long, long after the traditions of men had set in them, and from within which they then translated those passages into English.

Even with the KJV - there had been a huge conflict back then between the Puritans and the Anglicans, over whether the word "congregation" or the word "church" was "the better translation."

Obviously, the Anglicans not only won that one out, but so persecuted the Puritans for their stance on the Geneva Bible, that they were foreced to end up "scattered abroad" - to the so called "New World" - which is why we will all be celebrating Thanksgiving in a few days - those Puritans and their Geneva Bible, and Plymouth Rock, and all the rest.

Yum, Turkey and cranberry sauce, and stuffing, and great, Tam type Thanksgiving decorations!

But anyway, all this shows that merely going by ANY translation alone, will very often end one up at more of the same - the traditions of men.

Fact of the matter is that throughout the Scripture, the study practice followed is that of their example of their studying out HOW words are used, WHERE they are found being used BY WHO, as to THE WHOM, concerning WHAT, in light of THE WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, WHY, and HOW of one thing or another.

Daniel 9:2 In the first year of his reign I Daniel understood by books the number of the years, whereof the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah the prophet, that he would accomplish seventy years in the desolations of Jerusalem.

Get yourself a good collection of THOSE kinds of passages, carefully study them as to what they indicate as to what those men looked for, and THEN simply follow THEIR SAME practice.

In the above passage, as in the ones that immediately follow it, for example, it is obvious that Daniel is not only going by the Law and the Prophets or "the books" - but in accordance with some sort of a Time Line, and so on.

Not only that; if you know your history, you know those "books" were actually Scrolls.

So much for merely relying on a translation.

Also, you'll find that where you yourself ARE crystal clear on one thing or another, that is because you YOURSELF have INADVERTENTLY followed the above, same, BASIC Principle.

As in Nehemia 8:20; and Luke 24:44; etc.

There is a pattern of properly studying a thing out in Scripture, in accordance with Certain Basic Rules behind sound Reading Comprehension that passages like those illustrate those men were basically following.

In fact, actually, over relying on dictionaries and or one translation or another, is the mark of the newbie.

It is obvious throughout the Scripture that such had not been the practice of the more astute, back then - that their practice back then, is all that is needed now also.

Consider this here - all probably said in the same language, back then. Why then did it go right past them - what had been their obvious failure?

What, within the above basic principle, had they failed to follow?

John 11:11 These things said he: and after that he saith unto them, Our friend Lazarus sleepeth; but I go, that I may awake him out of sleep. 11:12 Then said his disciples, Lord, if he sleep, he shall do well. 11:13 Howbeit Jesus spake of his death: but they thought that he had spoken of taking of rest in sleep. 11:14 Then said Jesus unto them plainly, Lazarus is dead.

Rom. 5:8; 14:5.
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I'll admit I'm not the sharpest knife in the draw but I'm not stupid either. I use different versions to get a better understanding of what is being said and I will read commentaries. Then I will look up Greek words to help clarify further.

What I see and disagree with mostly is the things that people say about a passage that clearly contradicts the actual words in the passage or ignore the words all together. The bible isn't written on a PhD level. Paul said, when we read we can understand. It's not that hard.
 
turbosixx

turbosixx

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oatmeal said:
Yes, that is it

Romans 10:9-10

9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

When a person believes they receive and when they confess it is their salvation

Until then it is only an available promise for them to claim
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These people have been baptized into Jesus. How can you say that confession and believe are all that's necessary? When you read the bible and see non-Christians become Christian, is that all they do?

Acts 18:8
 
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glorydaz said:
Ah, just what I was talking about in Dan's thread. :think:
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It is a wrong understanding of Gal 2:16. Compare your ESV/any other easy read translation to see why Paul is speaking of you living by His Life IN you when reading from the KJV; i.e.,you being obedient to it Him Who indwells you as He was obedient to His Father . . and now your Father, if you are born again.
 
D

DAN P

Well-known member
turbosixx said:
These people have been baptized into Jesus. How can you say that confession and believe are all that's necessary? When you read the bible and see non-Christians become Christian, is that all they do?

Acts 18:8
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Hi and it is OBVIOUSLY that you do not believe Rom 10:9 !!

And what does BELIEVED and BAPTIZED in Acts 18:8 means , since Crispus , the RULER of the synagogue , is a Jew , and the Jews believed in WATER BAPTISM as preached by Peter in Acts 2:39 and also proved by Heb 10:9 !!

The Greek words BELIEVED / PISTEUO and WERE BAPTIZED / BAPTIZO are verb in the Greek IMPERFECT TENSE !!

The IMPERFECT TENSE means that BELIEVED and WERE BAPTIZED would stop and it did stop in Acts 28:28 and 2 Cor 3:13-15 prove it !!

Verse 5 , shows what preaching was being heard by those in the synagogue is in verse 5 , that Jesus the Christ or Jesus the MESSIAH , not the Grace of God !!

dan p
 
turbosixx

turbosixx

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Right Divider said:
Please try to explain how you connect these things together.

The church which is His body of a new creature. It is the one new man, that has nothing to do with Israel... if that's what you're trying to make it.
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I was hoping you would explain why it has nothing to do with Israel.

I'm not trying to make it anything. I just want to understand what it says and this is what it says.
14 For he himself is our peace, who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility
Who are the two made one? I believe it's Jew and Gentile.


19 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God,
They are no longer aliens, who were they alienated from? Verse 12 says Israel.

Who are they fellow citizens with?
 
turbosixx

turbosixx

New member
DAN P said:
Hi and it is OBVIOUSLY that you do not believe Rom 10:9 !!
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I absolutely believe Romans 10:9

I don't need to read the Greek. I can read English just fine.
Mark 16:16 Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.

It looks the same as Acts 18:8 Crispus, the ruler of the synagogue, believed in the Lord, together with his entire household. And many of the Corinthians hearing Paul believed and were baptized.

I don't find it odd that Paul would do just as Jesus instructed.
 
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