Thanks be to God for that privilege and honor.
when did Peter use the keys to the Kingdom of Heaven ?
- Thread starter DAN P
- Start date
That is a perfect verse to define the "before and after" of Paul's conversion.
Derf
Well-known member
Yet Paul tells Timothy to do righteous things.
2 Timothy 2:22 (KJV) Flee also youthful lusts: but follow righteousness, faith, charity, peace, with them that call on the Lord out of a pure heart.
Idolater
"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
He unceasingly tells everyone to do that.
And in Rom 15:20 we seen the Greek word NOT / OV and LEST / ME are what is called a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICILE NEGATIVE and means that Paul was NOT / OV where Christ was named .
This Greek word LEST /ME is also used in 1 Cor 1:15 which means Paul NEVER water baptized NO ONE !!
dan p
Derf
Well-known member
By the double negative, do you mean Paul always baptized someone? He certainly sometimes baptized, by his own admission.
Derf
Well-known member
Explain what about it?
Were that true, then Paul was a liar.
It is written..."I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other." (1 Cor 1:14-16)
Paul had others to do the baptizing for him.
They are self-explanatory.
They heard the message and got baptized.
What is there to explain?
And you can not handle Acts 18: 7 and 8 and here is what you did not read !
Do you believe that is 1 Cor 1:14 that I baptized none of you except CRISPUS and GAIUS .
Funny that in Acts 18:5 Paul is preaching - Jesus the CHRIST AND IN VERSE 6 , Paul says I am CLEAN , From now on I will go to the GENTILES ..
And then in verse 4 Paul was speaking to the Jews in a SYNAGOGUE and in verse 7 departed from that place he went to a certain one's house
bordering on the Synagogue and who was the ruler of the Synagogue , you guessed it , was CRISPUS , and Crispus preaching and many believed in the Lord .
And many with his whole house and many CORINTHIANS hearings , were believing and were being BAPTIZED .
Then in Acts 19:2 did not know or heard of the HOLY SPIRIT ,
And in verse 3 , For what reason then were you BAPTIZED / and here this Greek word is not BAPTIZED and is the Greek word BAPTISMA A
and ones said into the BAPTISM / BAPTIZO of John .
That Greek word BAPTISMA , one that BAPTIZES and that BAPTISMA is the HOLY SPIRIT .
they BAPTIZED in the name f the LORD JESUS /,
Then in verse 6 , Paul having LAID HANDS upon them THE HOLY SPIRIT came upon them and they were speaking in Languages and were Prophesying .
So where is the WATER / HODER in Acts 19:2-5 ??
dan p
The water baptism, in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, is in verse 5, after which Paul laid hands on the twelve at Ephesus...
"When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied."
One event followed the other.
The baptism of the Holy Ghost followed the water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin.
The Holy Spirit will not inhabit an unclean temple.
It is written..."Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?
If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are. (1 Cor 3:16-17)
Derf
Well-known member
Seems you're working extra hard to read something into that scripture that isn't there, or maybe read something out of it that is there.
There's water in this:
Acts 19:3-6 (KJV) 3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. 4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. 5 When they heard [this], they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 6 And when Paul had laid [his] hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
Right Divider
Body part
Do you know what "John's baptism" was? Do you know who "the people" are in verse 4?
So many Christians want to be Israelites.
P.S. Were you baptized with water? Did you speak in tongues and prophesy?
Derf
Well-known member
The question was whether there was water in those verses. The answer I gave was that there definitely was water in those verses. Are you saying the verses were dry verses?
Right Divider
Body part
No, there is water there. I'm just saying that it is no longer applicable to believers today.
Derf
Well-known member
I don't always get Dan's meaning, so maybe you can help. He seemed to think that water wasn't a part of that passage, and you agree with me that it is. I think he agrees with you that water baptism isn't applicable today. Can you help me understand why
1. he would want to say there's no water in Acts 19:2-5
2. If there's water in Acts 19:2-5 (or 3-9, as I cited), why is it only relevant to me if I've spoken in tongues or prophesied?
Right Divider
Body part
I'm the same, so I probably will not be able to help.
John's baptism was definitely water. But its purpose was related to the nation of Israel. The term "the people" in the "new testament" most often refers to the nation of Israel.
Because when they were water baptized, that's what happened. If you think that it's the same baptism for today, why would it not happen?
Paul tells us that there is ONE baptism for the body of Christ. That is the baptism BY one Spirit into one body. There is no water involved.
Eph 4:5 (AKJV/PCE)
(4:5) One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
1Cor 12:13 (AKJV/PCE)
(12:13) For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether [we be] Jews or Gentiles, whether [we be] bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
Yes.
Not so much to be Israelites as to be washed of our past sins. (Acts 2:38)
Not to mention killing of the old man and being raised with Christ to walk in newness of life. (Rom 6:4-6)
Yes, yes, and yes.
Thanks be to the graceful glory of God.
Derf
Well-known member
It didn't seem to happen based on baptism (Acts 19:6 (KJV) And when Paul had laid [his] hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.), and it seems not to have happened every time. (1 Corinthians 12:30 (KJV)
Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?)
If baptism is symbolized by water, but effected internally by the Holy Spirit, that's still just one baptism. Just like your reference to 1Cor 12, which is following up on what Paul talked about in ch 10--1 Corinthians 10:2-4 (KJV) 2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; 3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
If they were baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea, it was still just one baptism--the sea was the water and the cloud was the presence of God's Spirit.