Water Baptism passed away in this dispensation

Minerva

New member
In case you might be wondering why I am going in so many different directions with my questions and comments. I am reading what you are all saying here and I am researching on my own as well through many different avenues and I am trying to make my own decision on what I think about this subject. My questions are just to help clarify certain things I am researching, which will lead to my final conclusion later.
 

glassman

New member
You say there is no water in the verse Ephesians 4:5 but if you read into the next chapter, as Paul is still speaking to the gentiles, you can see that there is...

Ephesians 5:

26That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,

What do you think is being referred to when it says "it"? (I think it is referring to the church, and the church can also be translated as God's people)

It says to me that Jesus made "it" clean by the washing of water with the word. Saying that washing something with water made it clean.

In what way, if any, do you think this verse correlates to baptism?

(I would like GLASSMAN to answer this too, please)



While I am aware that the Pauline Epistles are of special note...we have to realize that the word baptism shows up in about 58 verses in the bible. That surely says to me that we should reflect on the subject.

Joh 4:10 Jesus answered and said unto her, If thou knewest the gift of God, and who it is that saith to thee, Give me to drink; thou wouldest have asked of him, and he would have given thee living water.

This living water has the ability to cleanse the hearts of sinners and santify
the church which is His body.
 

bling

Member
I said:
Look how will the 12 disciples prior to Jesus going to the cross, being buried and rising understood Christianity? Even John the Baptist seemed to have a different perspective on the Messiah and asked Jesus “are you the one?” The masses (the majority of Jewish people) had a misconception of the Messiah and would not have understood their commitment with John’s baptism. When you commit to a leader that has gone to the grave, you have to have faith in His resurrection. If you were a Jew lived in Palestine at the time of John the Baptist and everyone was believing he was a prophet and everyone was going out to be baptized by him what is the down side risk to accepting John’s baptism? Why would you not be baptized by John unless you were part of the Jewish religious leadership, but even they did not say anything against John, John had no critics? The idea being conveyed is that the vast majority of the Jewish people were baptized with John’s baptism. Making a commitment to Christ as the Messiah after being crucified is another whole story. That could get you kicked out of the synagogue, that was accepting a entirely different Messiah.
Glassman said:
My response: In the future please provide proof text for you assumptions.
A lot of these are questions and verse we know, I will give book, chapter verse.

Glassman said:
John baptized Jesus and the Father witnessed from heaven that Jesus was His Son.
Why do you feel Jesus was baptized by John?

Glassman said:
No misconseptions. John prepared the way of the Lord.
John asked for clarification toward the end of his life. Luke 7:19-21.
Apollo knew only John’s baptism and had to have further instruction. Acts 18: 26.
The group of 12 men new only the baptism of John and thus knew nothing concerning the Holy Spirit. Acts 19: 1-7.
“John prepared the way” as you and scripture say and did not present the way as the apostle did (no one after Pentecost is said to be “preparing the way”). The Christians became members of the “Way”. Acts 9:2.

Glassman said:
No critics because baptism was Jewish tradition.
Baptism is emersion or dipping and is not referred to as a sprinkling of water on the people. There was emersion in the O.T. like Noah and the Israelites through the Red Sea. There were some ceremonial cleanings, but baptism is not referred to as being a cleansing ceremony. John is not asking the people to come out and be cleansed.
Could you give me scripture for the masses of Jews being routinely baptized?



Previously said:
I said all that to get to the numbers: The evidence we have is there were over 150,000+ people in Jerusalem at the time of Christ the Bible supports this idea also but does not give the number specifically.
Luke 7:29 All the people, even the tax collectors, when they heard Jesus' words, acknowledged that God's way was right, because they had been baptized by John.
Acts 13:24 : Before the coming of Jesus, John preached repentance and baptism to all the people of Israel.
Matt:21:26 we are afraid of the people, for they all hold that John was a prophet.
John 3:23 Now John also was baptizing at Aenon near Salim, because there was plenty of water, and people were constantly coming to be baptized.
To use the word “all” the number must be much greater then 50%, so would that not mean greater the 50% of the 150,000 plus in Jerusalem? If that is true, how can there be by Acts 4:4 the Church rapidly growing to only 5,000 men believers?
Glassman said:
Try a quick look at Jewish tradition concerning baptism.

What does that have to do with the issue?
The evidence above (with scripture reference) is that there were way to many Jews baptized with John’s baptism to be included in the 5000 men believers in Acts 4:4. How can the conclusion not be: John baptism could not have made you a Christian?



Previously said:
John the Baptist preached repentance for the forgiveness of sin (Mark 1:4). I am sure the Messiah as the source of that forgiveness would be addressed, but there would be confusion about the description of the Messiah. Many seemed to think John was the Messiah. John knew Jesus was the Messiah and said as much, but did not play the part of an advertiser or a recruiter for Jesus. John was preparing the way for the new dispensation and the Kingdom. John’s picture of the Messiah seemed incomplete, so he would ask again Luke 7:19. The servant, selfless, sacrificial, God in man Messiah was not understood by the Masses (if anyone at the time). John was preaching the same good news taught by the prophets before him, the baptism was a sign of commitment to those concepts.
What would it have meant to the Jews that heard from John: Jesus is the Christ and only preach the Baptism of John? If that is the whole message then Priscilla and Aquila would not have more to teach Apollos in Acts 18:26. Apollos needed more training on baptism and not on Jesus as the Christ.
John’s baptism did nothing in the way of conveying the Holy Spirit.
Glassman said:
No confusion about the Messiah when John baptized them.
Could you give me any scripture reference to any human during the time of Christ on earth prior to his crucifixion, knowing that Jesus would go to the cross, be buried and rise three days later?

The Pharisees would have come the closes and did have the tome guarded.


Glassman asked:
What do you mean by conveying the Holy Spirit.
Jesus tells us that he must first leave us before the indwelling Holy Spirit would come. John 14, 15, & 16

Those 12 that knew John’s baptism knew nothing of the Spirit. Acts 19:1-7.

Glassman asked:
What more was revealed at Pentecost about the Holy Spirit then the Baptist did.
Read John 14, 15 & 16. The Spirit can revel Himself to you if He indwells you, so really little has to be said and not much more was said that we have recorded in Acts 2. It appears the 120 were baptized with the Spirit (the miraculous portion of the Spirit) Acts 2: 1-4 and everyone received the indwelling Spirit. Acts 2:38-39. The spirit need to raise the believers from the dead. Rms 8:11. That we all possess.

Previously said:
Acts 18: 25He had been instructed in the way of the Lord, and he spoke with great fervor and taught about Jesus accurately, though he knew only the baptism of John. 26He began to speak boldly in the synagogue. When Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they invited him to their home and explained to him the way of God more adequately.

The only short coming of Apollos message was he only knew the baptism of John.

Paul appears to meet up with some taught by Apollos and explains the short coming to knewing only John’s baptism.

Acts 19: 1While Apollos was at Corinth, Paul took the road through the interior and arrived at Ephesus. There he found some disciples 2and asked them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when[a] you believed?"
They answered, "No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit."
3So Paul asked, "Then what baptism did you receive?"
"John's baptism," they replied.
4Paul said, "John's baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the one coming after him, that is, in Jesus." 5On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. 6When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied. 7There were about twelve men in all.
From the above discussion you can see Paul ties water baptism to receiving the Holy Spirit. There is a sequence of events that follows there hearing about Jesus as the Christ, they were baptized (water baptism) and then afterwards “when” Paul places his hands on them the received a miraculous portion of the Spirit that included speaking in tongues. They were not baptized with the Spirit and the laying on of Paul’s hands is not baptism. If you look at the Greek there is a sequence of events.

Glassman said:
The word water is not in the verses you provided. Dry baptism is more of a possibility.
That is totally an assumption on your part, show me why “Dry baptism is more of a possibility”?

. Was John’s baptism dry?
Paul asked about the baptism the 12 had received Acts 19:3 (since they did not know anything about the Holy Spirit.). Them saying, “John’s baptism”, explained it all to Paul because he understood what that meant Acts 19:4. Acts 19: 5 says they were baptized, which you assume was dry Holy Spirit baptism, but the only time Holy Spirit baptism (specifically described that way) is mentioned, the people immediately had miraculous gifts Acts 2 and 10. The Greek grammar in these verses Acts 195-6, says the tongue speaking came after the laying on of Paul’s hands (not with the baptism) which was also a way of receiving miraculous gifts of the Spirit and is never referred to as being baptism with the laying on of hands. Acts 8:8-17. You have to use a non supported translation of the Greek scripture to say: Acts 19:5 is the description of what went on in Acts 19:6.



At water baptism we do not receive the miraculous gifts of the Spirit that goes with being baptized with the Spirit or the laying on of the apostles hands, but we do receive the indwelling portion of the Spirit that is not outwardly seen. That indwell portion is what all Christians receive today, for there are no more apostles around to lay hands on people and there has not been any baptisms of the Spirit since the very early church days. John’s baptism did not provide the indwelling Spirit.

Glassman asked:
There is no "baptism of the Spirit" at Pentecost. Got proof text?

There is definitely Holy Spirit Baptism in Acts 2:1-4. Those water Baptized (which is an act of Spiritual worship John 4:23) in Acts 2:38 did receive the Holy Spirit. Acts 8:9-25 shows people being water baptized and not receiving miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit until later when the apostles came and lade hands on them. This does not mean those baptized did not receive the hidden individual indwelling portion of the Spirit required of all believers Rms 8:11. There are lots of references to baptism, but only two for Holy Spirit Baptism Acts 2 and 10.

Previously said:
I have gone over John’s baptism above, but the big commitment difference is committing to the crucified Christ and the understanding we put Christ on the cross for our sins to be forgiven. It is one thing to commit to God forgiving our sins some how through the Messiah (what else can we do for we can not work our way out of that debt) and it is another thing to commit to being responsible for butting Christ on the cross. My sins sent Christ to the cross and He willingly bore my sins there.
Glassman said:

There is no mention that Christ died for their sins at Pentecost. Got proof text?
We have just the introductory lesson (and maybe only a portion of that) presented by Peter. Acts 2: 21And everyone who calls
on the name of the Lord will be saved. Acts 2: 40With many other words he warned them; and he pleaded with them.



Previously said:
Acts 2: 38Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
Glassman said:
John preached water baptism for remission and also the Holy Ghost.

No difference!
There is a huge difference between mentioning the Holy Spirit as coming (as John did Mark 1:8) and receiving the indwell Spirit as John did not provide. Jesus describes the work of the indwelling Spirit that was coming to them soon John 14, 15 & 16 and Paul tell us all believers have Him. Rms 8:11.


Mat 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:




Previously said:
Look what Jesus says in John 3:6 Jesus does not say “born of water is flesh” or physical. Physical birth is not expressed as water birth.
Nic did not need clarification on the first birth, they were in agreement with that. Also, Jesus replies to the question on people’s hearts not the questions or comments they verbally address to Jesus you can see that with John 3:1-3.
I think the explanation I already gave is clear on this:

Well my Greek is rusty, but let me try to explain what I remember: In John 3:3 Jesus said: "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God." Then in John 3:5 in response to Nicodemus want clarification Jesus restates what He said: "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. It is very easy to see that “born again” in 3:3 = “born of water and the Spirit” in 3:5. It would not be logical for Jesus to add another concept into the second parallel statement said right after the first. “born again” was what Nicodemus was asking about not being born the first time, he understood that.


I am saying “Born of water and the Spirit” means this birth consist of both “water and the Spirit” not two births. Jesus did not say “born of water and born of the Spirit” that would be a totally different Greek wording, check the Greek out. The water birth is spiritual worship and is only significant as a spiritual act. John was providing something totally different, then the physical acts of worship at the temple, this was an act of Spiritual worship that would have been include in Jesus statement John 4:23.
Glassman said:
John's baptism was in keeping with Jewish tradition.

This does nothing to address the question.
The closes thing to John’s baptism I can find is in secular Jewish traditions of baptizing a female convert to the Jewish religion. What are you talking about?
If water baptism is a act of worship instituted by Christ does it also not have to be “in Spirit and truth” John 4:23.
 

Minerva

New member
bling - matthew 3: 13-17

13Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.

14But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?

15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

16And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

17And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
 

bling

Member
Glassman said: Water baptism is not for us today and the ritual should not be peformed.
So why did Paul performed it and could we not do it for the same reason as he did today?
Was it an act of worship and why is it not an act of worship today, like confessing that Jesus is Lord?
 

Minerva

New member
So why did Paul performed it and could we not do it for the same reason as he did today?
Was it an act of worship and why is it not an act of worship today, like confessing that Jesus is Lord?

I am not completely learned on this subject yet, but from what I understand so far, if I am correct, is....

Glassman says it isn't for us today and you are asking why paul performed it? That was a long time ago and a lot of things have taken place since the time that Paul baptized Jesus that show us that now we do not have to do such things. After Jesus died on the cross we entered into a new covenant with God and now we are saved by his grace. At the time of Jesus' baptism this covenant was not in effect.

It was not an act of worship in my opinion.
 

bling

Member
I am not completely learned on this subject yet, but from what I understand so far, if I am correct, is....

Glassman says it isn't for us today and you are asking why paul performed it? That was a long time ago and a lot of things have taken place since the time that Paul baptized Jesus that show us that now we do not have to do such things. After Jesus died on the cross we entered into a new covenant with God and now we are saved by his grace. At the time of Jesus' baptism this covenant was not in effect.

It was not an act of worship in my opinion.
Glassman, has been saying Paul ushered in a new dispensation that does not require baptism. Yet Paul did baptize at least some people, for some reason. What ever that reason was, we should at least be able to use that reason to baptize today. That is simple logic.
 

bling

Member
Minerva said:
It was not an act of worship in my opinion.
That brings up the question of how do you define “worship”. I know “vain worship” Matt. 15:9.is offering up to God obedience to human commands. I might interpret righteous worship as offering up to God obedience to God’s commands. If God did command people to be baptized then we can offer up to God obedience to that command. That does not mean we can not offer other things up as worship to God or that we have to offer up baptism.
 

Minerva

New member
That brings up the question of how do you define “worship”. I know “vain worship” Matt. 15:9.is offering up to God obedience to human commands. I might interpret righteous worship as offering up to God obedience to God’s commands. If God did command people to be baptized then we can offer up to God obedience to that command. That does not mean we can not offer other things up as worship to God or that we have to offer up baptism.

No matter how you view the word worship, I still don't see it as that. Offering to God obedience to a command is not worship....it would plainly be obedience. No need to confuse words or make it more than it is with alternate definitions. Obedience is obedience.

I haven't forgotten to address your previous post either, gimmie a sec.
 

thelaqachisnext

BANNED
Banned
1Co 1:17 For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel; not in wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.

Eph 4:4 There is one body and one Spirit, even as you are called in one hope of your calling,
Eph 4:5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism

VS.

Mar 1:4 John came baptizing in the wilderness and proclaiming the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Joh 1:31 And I did not know Him, but that He be revealed to Israel, therefore I have come baptizing with water.

Mar 16:16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved, but he who does not believe will be condemned.

What relevance to the Gospel of Jesus Christ does your string of verses have?

Are you trying to make up something new, not of the Word of God, by taking statements specifically targeted to certain Believers -who were water baptized [Corinthians]- to show them they were carnal for saying "I am of Paul" -or " I am of Peter/Cephas", or "I am of Apollos"? -so what if Paul the apostle was not "sent" to baptize -He was baptized in water in obedience to Jesus Christ's commission by a man who was "sent to baptize" by Jesus; and Ananais commanded Saul to "rise and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the LORD" -and Saul did obey.
And all who heard Saul obeyed the Gospel and were water baptized. All to whom Paul wrote his targeted letters to, were water baptized -so what is your point?

Paul the Apostle wrote no letters to you, BTW, as all his letters were to specific target audiences who were all born again, water baptized, Pentecostal, Jews or Gentiles, and either males and females.

MAD doctrine is not of the Word of God and is as clueless as Watchtower or Momonism, in following the doctrines of men as those others do
who went out from the Faith and made up another strange, pseudo gospel; MAD doctrine denys the Gospel of Jesus Christ and teaches men to follow a pseudo paul, who has no kinship with Paul the Apostle, who was a:
born again,
water baptized,
Pentecostal,
male,
Jew,
who circumcised Timothy with his own hands,
and who prayed/spoke/sang in tongues "more than ye all",
who commanded born again Jews to not become uncircumsied and commanded born again Gentiles to not become circumcised, and who commanded "do not forbid to speak in tongues",
and , "covet earnestly to prophesy.

-Billy Graham was not sent to baptize.
Billy Graham was baptized in water.

I am not sent to baptize.
I am baptised in water -and in the Holy Spirit and I am born again in Spirit and I have tasted the Glory of the Father in a measure, sent to me by Jesus.

Evangelists are not sent to baptize. Evangelists are baptized in water.

Pastors, elders, deacons, are sent to "baptize all born again Believers -and Believer can baptize a new believer if neccessary -as Paul the Apostle did also do to many, but that is reserved for the local Church leaders to do to all born again Believers who come into the Faith.
 

Minerva

New member
Glassman, has been saying Paul ushered in a new dispensation that does not require baptism. Yet Paul did baptize at least some people, for some reason. What ever that reason was, we should at least be able to use that reason to baptize today. That is simple logic.


No, and if you would study and aquire a better understanding of the scriptures that tell us about the times when baptism was used and also note the signifigance of Christ and the cross and the new covenant with God, and as well the Pentecost and the comission then you will have a better understanding of what the reason was for paul baptizing the people. It doesn't sound very logical to me for you to say "atleast some people, for some reason" I could give you some links for some very explanatory articles on the subject and everything that it encompasses if you would like. They are all from different viewpoints with plenty of scriptural reference so that you can decide for yourself which one you think is correct.
 

bling

Member
No matter how you view the word worship, I still don't see it as that. Offering to God obedience to a command is not worship....it would plainly be obedience. No need to confuse words or make it more than it is with alternate definitions. Obedience is obedience.

I haven't forgotten to address your previous post either, gimmie a sec.

I like to understand worship and think there could be an all inclusive definition for righteous worship. If you want to call being baptized an act or responce of obedience for some people at some time, then we can leave it at that.
 

bling

Member
No, and if you would study and aquire a better understanding of the scriptures that tell us about the times when baptism was used and also note the signifigance of Christ and the cross and the new covenant with God, and as well the Pentecost and the comission then you will have a better understanding of what the reason was for paul baptizing the people. It doesn't sound very logical to me for you to say "atleast some people, for some reason" I could give you some links for some very explanatory articles on the subject and everything that it encompasses if you would like. They are all from different viewpoints with plenty of scriptural reference so that you can decide for yourself which one you think is correct.

“No”? No it is not logical? I have studied baptism and read a lot of peoples thoughts on the subject, I am much more interested in your thoughts so we can reason together, for I have lots of questions not addressed by authors. I do not want conclusions, but what all was considered and their reasons for their interpretations of scripture. Those “times” were when the truth spread rapidly and the people were not any different then people today.
 

thelaqachisnext

BANNED
Banned
Good for some but bad for others.

The ritual of water baptism has it's roots in Judaism as a spiritual cleansing.

During John's ministry it was required before remission of sins.
Mar 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Peter's Penecostal message required it for remission (Acts 2:38).
Act 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

If only one is lost due to believing in this ritual of water then it is one to many.

Remission in water or spiritual cleansing was a message for those under the law but we have a new testament message which was noy revealed at Pentecost.

Christ said:
Mat 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

Pauline message:
Rom 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;

Water baptism is not for us today and the ritual should not be peformed.

1Co 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

This Mad doctrine is blatant blasphemy against the Words of the LORD Jesus Christ and absolute wresting of Scripture and word crafting equal to Watchtower and Momonism.

Jesus commanded the "ritual" of water baptism for the old man body which all believers continue to wear after they are born again in Spirit [which we wear until we depart the old man body] and JEsus commanded water baptism for all who believe the One Gospel 4 whole days after the night in which He took the fourth cup of Passover Supper, which fourth cup in Judaism is called "salvation".

So what that Paul the Apostle said to the Corinthians [who were being charged by him of being carnal -acting in the old man and not in the new Man Spirit- for calling themselves "of Paul, or "of Peter", or "of Apollos" and that he was glad he had not baptized many of them lest they say he baptized them in his own name -which name MAD does carnally claim to be of, but their paul is an invention and has no relation to Paul the Apostle, who was a
born again
water baptized
Pentecostal
male
circumcised
Jew;
who circumcised Timothy with his own hands and also said to the Corinthians to "do not forbid to speak in tongues" and "covet earnestly to prophesy".
Paul the apostle commanded Jews called into the Name of Jesus to not become uncircumcised, and commanded Gentiles called into the tname of Jesus to not become circumcised.

The above Truth of the revealed doctrines of Paul the Apostle shows that MAD doctrine is false and that the paul they follow is not Paul the Apostle.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
JWs and Mormons deny essentials of the faith and are pseudo-Christian cults.

You could call Mid-Acts heretical, but it does not deny the essentials of the faith. Its proponents are fellow believers in Christ.

There is a big difference between denying the Deity of Christ and believing polytheism (cults) vs differing when the Church started and whether baptism is required or not (Christian umbrella).
 

glassman

New member
This Mad doctrine is blatant blasphemy against the Words of the LORD Jesus Christ and absolute wresting of Scripture and word crafting equal to Watchtower and Momonism.

Jesus commanded the "ritual" of water baptism for the old man body which all believers continue to wear after they are born again in Spirit [which we wear until we depart the old man body] and JEsus commanded water baptism for all who believe the One Gospel 4 whole days after the night in which He took the fourth cup of Passover Supper, which fourth cup in Judaism is called "salvation".

So what that Paul the Apostle said to the Corinthians [who were being charged by him of being carnal -acting in the old man and not in the new Man Spirit- for calling themselves "of Paul, or "of Peter", or "of Apollos" and that he was glad he had not baptized many of them lest they say he baptized them in his own name -which name MAD does carnally claim to be of, but their paul is an invention and has no relation to Paul the Apostle, who was a
born again
water baptized
Pentecostal
male
circumcised
Jew;
who circumcised Timothy with his own hands and also said to the Corinthians to "do not forbid to speak in tongues" and "covet earnestly to prophesy".
Paul the apostle commanded Jews called into the Name of Jesus to not become uncircumcised, and commanded Gentiles called into the tname of Jesus to not become circumcised.

The above Truth of the revealed doctrines of Paul the Apostle shows that MAD doctrine is false and that the paul they follow is not Paul the Apostle.

I am not a mid-acts dispensationist and I believe the bible should be interpreted as it says it and where it says it without adding to it.

Why do you require a ritual washing for your flesh?

I do not follow Paul but I believe a "progressive revelation" by Jesus as He walked the earth to the apostles and then to Paul by His Spirit.

Peter continued to learn about God's plan of salvation after Pentecost.

I believe those really grounded in truth reflect a kinship to other believers as
godrulz has displayed.
 

glassman

New member
thelaqachisnext,

You said:
Are you trying to make up something new, not of the Word of God, by taking statements specifically targeted to certain Believers -who were water baptized [Corinthians]- to show them they were carnal for saying "I am of Paul" -or " I am of Peter/Cephas", or "I am of Apollos"? -so what if Paul the apostle was not "sent" to baptize -He was baptized in water in obedience to Jesus Christ's commission by a man who was "sent to baptize" by Jesus; and Ananais commanded Saul to "rise and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the LORD" -and Saul did obey.
And all who heard Saul obeyed the Gospel and were water baptized. All to whom Paul wrote his targeted letters to, were water baptized -so what is your point?

My response:

Jesus did not send Ananais to water baptize Paul.

One should not add to scripture!

Act 9:11 And the Lord said unto him, Arise, and go into the street which is called Straight, and enquire in the house of Judas for one called Saul, of Tarsus: for, behold, he prayeth,
Act 9:12 And hath seen in a vision a man named Ananias coming in, and putting his hand on him, that he might receive his sight.
Act 9:13 Then Ananias answered, Lord, I have heard by many of this man, how much evil he hath done to thy saints at Jerusalem:
Act 9:14 And here he hath authority from the chief priests to bind all that call on thy name.
Act 9:15 But the Lord said unto him, Go thy way: for he is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel:
Act 9:16 For I will shew him how great things he must suffer for my name's sake.

The law was still in effect until Christ died.

Col 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
Col 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Ananias was a devout man according to the law.

Act 22:12 And one Ananias, a devout man according to the law, having a good report of all the Jews which dwelt there,
Act 22:13 Came unto me, and stood, and said unto me, Brother Saul, receive thy sight. And the same hour I looked up upon him.

Rom 7:4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.
Rom 7:5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
Rom 7:6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.

We should walk after the Spirit not the flesh.

Gal 5:24 And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.
Gal 5:25 If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.

There is no need for water baptism of the flesh because we can now receive baptism by His Spirit.

This baptism by the Spirit places us into the body of Christ and it was only He that could fufilled the law.

I hoped you understand what I am trying to convey to you. All that Christ did in fulfilling all righteousness of the law in His flesh, including water baptism, is credited to all that deny their ability to accomplish any act of righteousness and place all there faith and trust in Him because we are placed in His body.

His body is the white robe of righteousness that veils our sinful flesh.

There are no good works that we can perform concerning our flesh.

Rom 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Tit 3:5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;

Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not.

Rom 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Rom 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Rom 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
Rom 8:5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
Rom 8:6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.

Eph 4:3 Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace.
Eph 4:4 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;
Eph 4:5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
Eph 4:6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
Eph 4:7 But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ.
 

glassman

New member
Bling:

You said:
John asked for clarification toward the end of his life. Luke 7:19-21.
Apollo knew only John’s baptism and had to have further instruction. Acts 18: 26.
The group of 12 men new only the baptism of John and thus knew nothing concerning the Holy Spirit. Acts 19: 1-7.
“John prepared the way” as you and scripture say and did not present the way as the apostle did (no one after Pentecost is said to be “preparing the way”). The Christians became members of the “Way”. Acts 9:2.

My response:

No one is said to be preparing the way because Jesus came during John's ministry.

What exactly does "the way" mean to you ?

Acts 19:1-5
1) And it happened in the time Apollos was at Corinth, Paul was passing through the higher parts to Ephesus. And finding certain disciples,
2) he said to them, Have you received the Holy Spirit since you believed?
And they said to him, We did not so much as hear whether the Holy Spirit is.
3) And he said to them, Then to what were you baptized? And they said, To John's baptism.

They had not heard of the Holy Spirit!

That is no different than to say they had not heard John preach.

What did John preach Bling? Do you know?

I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire: Matt. 3:11


You said:
Baptism is emersion or dipping and is not referred to as a sprinkling of water on the people. There was emersion in the O.T. like Noah and the Israelites through the Red Sea. There were some ceremonial cleanings, but baptism is not referred to as being a cleansing ceremony. John is not asking the people to come out and be cleansed.
Could you give me scripture for the masses of Jews being routinely baptized?

My response:

Water immersion was performed before John the baptist.

Study the histroy of Judaism concerning baptism!



You said:
What does that have to do with the issue?
The evidence above (with scripture reference) is that there were way to many Jews baptized with John’s baptism to be included in the 5000 men believers in Acts 4:4. How can the conclusion not be: John baptism could not have made you a Christian?

My response:

Believing in Jesus as the Massiah made all during John's ministry Christians and John preached Christ and many were baptized believing in the Messiah.

You said:
Could you give me any scripture reference to any human during the time of Christ on earth prior to his crucifixion, knowing that Jesus would go to the cross, be buried and rise three days later?

My response:

Jesus revealed it but it wasn't accepted:

Mat 26:61 And said, This fellow said, I am able to destroy the temple of God, and to build it in three days.
Mat 26:62 And the high priest arose, and said unto him, Answerest thou nothing? what is it which these witness against thee?
Mat 26:63 But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God.
Mat 26:64 Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Mat 26:65 Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.
Mat 26:66 What think ye? They answered and said, He is guilty of death.

You said:
That is totally an assumption on your part, show me why “Dry baptism is more of a possibility”?

My response:

Joh 4:10 Jesus answered and said unto her, If thou knewest the gift of God, and who it is that saith to thee, Give me to drink; thou wouldest have asked of him, and he would have given thee living water.
Joh 4:11 The woman saith unto him, Sir, thou hast nothing to draw with, and the well is deep: from whence then hast thou that living water?
Joh 4:12 Art thou greater than our father Jacob, which gave us the well, and drank thereof himself, and his children, and his cattle?
Joh 4:13 Jesus answered and said unto her, Whosoever drinketh of this water shall thirst again:
Joh 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting life.

What do you believe this living water is?


That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, Eph. 5:26 (KJV)
That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish. Eph. 5:27 (KJV)

It is clearly stated that Christ washes (baptizes) with the word.

Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
1 Pet. 1:23 (KJV)

He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day. John 12:48 (KJV)


For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit. 1 Cor. 12:13
For the body is not one member, but many. 1 Cor. 12:14

The Lord is that Spirit (2 Cor 3:17) and the Spirit is Christ (Roms 8:9). Christ Jesus is the agent and the word (Eph 5:26) He spoke of His shed blood (Matt 26:28) is the element.

This baptism by the Spirit cleanses man on the inside and has nothing to do with the flesh (John 6:63). This baptism is also accomplished without water. The element of this cleansing must be received inwardly by believing the words of the new testament and thus we "drink" into the Spirit. We receive this spiritually (the breath of God enters into us), we do not drink His blood. This message was veiled by the flesh of Jesus and the apostles did not comprehend it. Spirit baptism by the power of God accomplished what water baptism could not do in that it eternally cleansed the heart of sinners.



You said:
At water baptism we do not receive the miraculous gifts of the Spirit that goes with being baptized with the Spirit or the laying on of the apostles hands, but we do receive the indwelling portion of the Spirit that is not outwardly seen. That indwell portion is what all Christians receive today, for there are no more apostles around to lay hands on people and there has not been any baptisms of the Spirit since the very early church days. John’s baptism did not provide the indwelling Spirit.

My response:

God chose not to give it until Christ ascended.

Joh 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.

If John had not been beheaded he would have been preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission 9mARK 1:4) of sins as did the apostles at pentecost (Acts 2:38)

You said:
There is definitely Holy Spirit Baptism in Acts 2:1-4. Those water Baptized (which is an act of Spiritual worship John 4:23) in Acts 2:38 did receive the Holy Spirit. Acts 8:9-25 shows people being water baptized and not receiving miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit until later when the apostles came and lade hands on them. This does not mean those baptized did not receive the hidden individual indwelling portion of the Spirit required of all believers Rms 8:11. There are lots of references to baptism, but only two for Holy Spirit Baptism Acts 2 and 10.

My response:

Strange that not one mention of "baptism" by the Spirit.

The baptism at Pentecost was with water.

You said:
This does nothing to address the question.
The closes thing to John’s baptism I can find is in secular Jewish traditions of baptizing a female convert to the Jewish religion. What are you talking about?
If water baptism is a act of worship instituted by Christ does it also not have to be “in Spirit and truth” John 4:23.

My response:

Baptism or Mikveh

Tevilah ("immersion” in Hebrew) is recited during the Jewish mikveh ritual. The ritual immersion commanded in Mosaic law form the basis for the Judaic mikveh laws. Ancient sages who formulated these rules agreed that the purpose of mikveh was spiritual rather than physical cleansing. They taught that the mikveh cleanses the unclean yet it was only a shadow of the spiritual cleansing performed by the Holy Spirit (Titus 3:5). The roots of baptism rest deeply and permanently within Jewish tradition. Baptism in the gospels and mikveh tradition teach the ritual has the power to cleanse the hearts of men.

Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men. Mark 7:7 (KJV)
For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing of pots and cups: and many other such like things ye do. Mark 7:8 (KJV)

In the old testament we read that before giving the Law on Mount Sinai, God commanded the people to wash as an act of purification (Exodus 19:11). The Mosaic law records the washing of Aaron (Lev. 8:6) and his sons when they were ordained as priests to minister in the holy tabernacle. God commanded Aaron (Lev. 16:4) to wash himself before he ministered in the Holy of Holies on the Day of Atonement. This priestly cleansing by immersion prepared Israel as a nation for the priesthood during the ministry of John the Baptist.

Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth is mine: (Ex. 19:5)
And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel (Ex. 19:6).

John was that voice crying in the wilderness!

For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight (Matt. 3:3).

The Hebrew word mikveh means "a collection or gathering together," in this context it refers to a gathering of the nations at Pentecost for the purpose of ritual cleansing. The earliest Biblical uses of the word "mikveh" occur in I Kings 7:23 and in 11 Chronicles 4:2 describing the huge circular "Sea of Solomon" constructed along with the first Temple for the priests to carry out their ceremonial washing.

The only Biblical requirement for entrance into the covenant was circumcision, baptism by tradition was added. No one knows exactly when the requirements were changed to include baptism, but it was before the time of Jesus placing it within the period of the Mosaic law.

Mikveh was a vital part of Jewish life well before the time of John the Baptist. One finds Mikvehs in medieval Spain, in ancient Italy and in desert outpost of Masada. The way archaeologists determine whether or not a dig is Jewish is the presence of a Mikveh. This is recorded in halacha (Jewish law) which states that before the synagogue is built, a Mikveh must be established.

Maimonides (1135-1204), a Jewish codifier of the Torah had this to say concerning converts to Judaism:

"By three things did Israel enter into the Covenant: by circumcision, and baptism and sacrifice. Circumcision was in Egypt, as it is written: 'No uncircumcised person shall eat thereof' (Exodus 12:48). Baptism was in the wilderness, just before giving of the Law, as it is written: 'Sanctify them today and tomorrow, and let them wash their clothes' (Exodus 19:10). And sacrifice, as it is said: 'And he sent young men of the children of Israel which offered burnt offerings' (Exodus 24:5)...When a gentile is willing to enter the covenant...He must be circumcised and be baptized and bring a sacrifice...And at this time when there is no sacrifice, they must be circumcised and be baptized; and when the Temple shall be built, they are to bring a sacrifice...The gentile that is made a proselyte and the slave that is made free,
behold he is like a child new born."

Gentiles of today who convert to Judaism must undergo baptism in a mikveh ritual. The purpose of this ceremonial immersion is believed to grant spiritual cleansing, as Maimonides stated in his codification of the laws of mikveh. Peter reflected this same belief when he required the Gentile Cornelius to be baptized.

Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? Acts 10:47 (KJV)

But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him. Acts 10:35 (KJV)
The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (he is Lord of all:) Acts 10:36 (KJV)

Using water to cleanse is an ancient Jewish tradition. When John the Baptist came on the scene he preached a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins (Mark 1:4) as did Peter (Acts 2:38) at Pentecost when the nations were gathered together. The Jews saw nothing pagan or wrong in John’s demands that people repent and be cleansed in the Jordan River."Baptist" or “baptizer“, comes from the Greek verb baptidzo, which has the same meaning as the Hebrew root taval: to wash by dipping or plunging in water. John's message was in keeping with what all the other Jewish prophets proclaimed. He preached God's judgment, warning that Israel must repent and be water baptized because of the coming of the Messiah was at hand. The self-righteous may have disagreed but they had no problem with John's method of cleansing. If it had been anything other than their normal tradition the religious leaders would have had him stoned as a false prophet.
John baptized Jesus and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!" (John 1 :29). Jesus was perfect and sinless, John’s baptism prepared Him as both Priest and Sacrifice for Israel. In the days Christ walked this earth the Mosaic law was still in effect, those who repented and were cleansed by John in the river still brought animal sacrifices to the Temple to receive God's forgiveness. But after Christ gave his life as an atonement for sin, removing the law (Col. 2:14), baptism became a Spiritual operation of God that places us into the body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:13).


The New Covenant or New Testament requires faith in the blood of Christ for remission (Rom. 3:25) as the eternal means for spiritual cleansing. Spiritual baptism is the washing away of sin (Titus 3:5) and uncleanness by the blood of Christ, and the giving of new life by God's Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:13).The New Testament scriptures teach that by faith we are plunged or buried into his atoning death (I Cor. 12:13), so that God might raise us even as Christ himself rose from the dead by the operation of God.

Maimonides listed the three requirements for Judaism as circumcision, baptism and sacrifice, in that order. Maimonides waived the requirement of sacrifice until the Temple should be rebuilt yet failed to realize that God never waived that requirement. God sent the Messiah before the Temple was destroyed, so that all who believed in him would not be left without an acceptable sacrifice for sin. Modern Christianity confuses the biblical order, the sacrifice comes first then water baptism as a symbol of their faith. The correct order is revealed in the gospels as the Baptist prepared Israel as priest with water baptism to receive Jesus who was the Sacrifice. The confusion in the order is based on a misunderstanding of the purpose and place water baptism had in the roots of Judaism. The scriptures do not teach water baptism as symbolic of what be believe but they reveal it as a cleansing ritual under the Mosaic law to prepare for the Sacrifice. Because of Christ's sacrifice, believers are cleansed spiritually and forgiven of their sin. Paul described it this way in his New Testament letter to the Gentile believers:

For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. (Col. 2:9)
And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power: (Col. 2:10)
In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ: (Col. 2:11)
Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead. (Col. 2:12)

Before Christ died one had to be circumcised and baptized to be brought under God's covenant, the New Testament is inward and visible only to God. By his Spirit, he inscribes his law upon the hearts of all those who commit themselves to him through faith in Jesus’ sacrifice (Jeremiah 31:33). The Scriptures teach that Jews and Gentiles by faith receive circumcision of the heart (Col. 2:11) and Spiritual cleaning (Titus 3:5) the moment they accept the Sacrifice of God. Therefore the fulfillment of the Mosaic law is found in Christ and not by works of righteousness. Paul by revelation (Gal 1:12) said:

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. 1 Cor. 1:17 (KJV)
For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God. 1 Cor. 1:18 (KJV)

Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; (Titus 3:5)
Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; (Titus 3:6)
That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life (Titus 3:7).
 

thelaqachisnext

BANNED
Banned
I am not a mid-acts dispensationist and I believe the bible should be interpreted as it says it and where it says it without adding to it.

Why do you require a ritual washing for your flesh?

I do not follow Paul but I believe a "progressive revelation" by Jesus as He walked the earth to the apostles and then to Paul by His Spirit.

Peter continued to learn about God's plan of salvation after Pentecost.

I believe those really grounded in truth reflect a kinship to other believers as
godrulz has displayed.
I believed you were MAD in doctrine because you were speaking like they do.

No one is a kinsman to Believers in Christ if they are not "in Christ" by the adoption into His One living Spirit.

We are all kinsmen in Adam, but to be one in Christ we must be born again, and if we are born again we will obey Jesus' commands, for His commands are in effect until the end of this present age, which is to say they are in effect until the Church is removed from this earth at the time of the ingathering of the first harvest of the adopted sons of God, which is taught in the living oracles, and which harvest is called Pentecost.

Jesus commanded all born again Believers to be baptized in water.

Jesus is God in flesh. God said to be water baptized. He said "why do you call me LORD and not obey My words".

There are only two reasons a professing "follower of Christ" would refuse to be water baptized in Jesus name:
1. ignorance of God's command, as exampled in Scripture, but rectified as soon as they were rightly instructed in the way of the LORD more perfectly.
2 they are not followers of Christ and have never known Him and follow doctrines of demons, which is warned of in Scripture, and the remedy is to obey Jesus' and not men.
 
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godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
laq:

Is baptism essential for salvation (salvific) in your view?

I agree it is an important step of obedience, but I could not make a biblical case that external ritual is necessary for salvation in light of the finished work of Christ (shed blood).
 
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