Eph. 2:14For he himself is our peace, who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility
One of the both isn't the nation Israel?
If not, what constitutes the nation Israel?
In Ephesians 2:11, Israel is a Covenant nation and is thus "nigh unto God."
In contrast, by the time of verse 13, Israel is now "were nigh" as a nation formerly under God, and God is now dealing with individuals of all nations absent of any covenants; ordinances; etc.
In other words, in His wrath, God has once more temporarily turned from Israel.
This time, however, during the interim between His temporarily turning from them in His wrath and His actually pouring out His wrath prior to His turning back to them to bless them, He has not only turned to the Gentiles, but down so absent of doing so through a redeemed Israel, as Prophesied.
Instead, He is not only now out among the Gentiles during Israel's temporary fall, but is using His being out among the Gentiles through Israel's fall, to provoke INDIVIDUAL Israelites to come after this GENTILE salvation - for He is not willing that they should perish during this temporary turn of His from Israel as a nation.
All that is where Romans 9 thru 11 comes in.
Especially this here...
Romans 9:17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: 9:23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, 9:24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
Your question fails to see the answer it has been given, due to your having failed to see the above - which was why I recommended you re-read the chapters I gave, and in the order I gave them to you in - Acts 7; Romans 1 thru 3, and then Ephesians 2.
Acts 7 and Romans 1 thru 3 are the lens thru which all the rest of all this and all.its seeming discrepancies begin to be clearly understood.
And Acts 7 itself, is understood through the lens of Romans 1 thru 3.
(Specifucally, Romans 1:18 thru 3:31).
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Note:
In the view that I and other MADs hold to outside of most, not all, MADs on here, Ephesians 2 is nothing more than the sense of Romans 1 thru 3 preached by Paul to people beyond those who he had preached the essentials of Romans 1 thru 3 to, as in Galatians 2 and 3, for example - which is also in light of Israel's former status.
One problem with all this is that it does not really lend itself to a soundbyte approach - especially one not only continually started and stopped, but continually interrupted not only by various in oppostion, but by various who hold a different view, including the view I hold.
Try cooking a minute by not only continually turn on and turning off, and letting cool the stove and starting over, but all the while changing and mixing the ingredients - you end up at a very....long wait...only to have to...throw much...if not all of it...out :chuckle:
To your credit though, turbbo, you continue to prove able to take criticism from others no matter how gracious or how vile towards you.
Til then, Rom. 14:5 towards ya.
Romans 5:6-8.