1 Cor 1:16 (NIV) should be clear to anyone. The WORD, incarnate in Jesus, is what created everything as per John 1:1-4 (NIV)
The modern English translations are quite well done, and there is NO need for reinterpretation.
Jesus is God
- Thread starter Bright Raven
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1 Cor 1:16 (NIV) should be clear to anyone. The WORD, incarnate in Jesus, is what created everything as per John 1:1-4 (NIV)
The modern English translations are quite well done, and there is NO need for reinterpretation.
Keypurr you're not a part of the Body of Christ, in my opinion.
you're a "Biblical Theorist." You don't believe the Scriptures as
they are and desire to have them fit your "Baloney."
Not gonna happen.
you're a "Biblical Theorist." You don't believe the Scriptures as
they are and desire to have them fit your "Baloney."
Not gonna happen.
As long as it fits YOUR interpretation, correct?
I'll stick with the King James Version and The New King James Version.
The NKJV is what I read and study from.
The NKJV is what I read and study from.
Whether you accept Jesus as 'God' or a 'God',....they are all still a tight-knit company, and are all 'one' in purpose, heart, spirit and will. So,...slice and dice as you wish,...its still all one salad. - dressings and condiments vary
pj
You belong to a UFO Cult. Why should anyone listen to you?
keypurr
Well-known member
My thought fit perfectly with scriptures GM, but upon learning the Hebrew that Jesus spoke I do not see words in Greek that should be used. It a long story that you can not understand GM.
keypurr
Well-known member
I did not ask you for your opinion GM, it matters not what you think. You will never know what my thoughts are for it seems your not chosen to know.
I don't have a desire to know your thoughts. Your thoughts are
too bizarre and convoluted. You have a screw loose in your head.
Who cares what your conclusions are? They go against "the tide of truth."
But in the original Mark, the earliest gospel, the women run away afraid. The resurrection is not described at all.
And Paul does not appear to know of the empty tomb tradition at all.
Jesus' resurrection means for Paul a "glorified body" not a physical resuscitation.
Not true, in Mark the women speak with the resurrected Jesus clothed in a white robe of some sort, then they ran away.
Paul never knew Jesus in the flesh but he clearly knew of and believed in the resurrection. See 1 Corinthians 15
It is you who don't believe in the resurrection, you are projecting your unbelief onto others.
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keypurr
Well-known member
Now I got you all worked up, good, maybe you will put away your old thoughts and think.
THREE MORE REASONS JESUS IS GOD
Reason #1: Jesus declared Himself God, "I AM."
Jesus, in response to the Pharisees’ question “Who do you think you are?” said, “‘Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it and was glad.’ ‘You are not yet fifty years old,’ the Jews said to him, ‘and you have seen Abraham!’ ‘I tell you the truth,’ Jesus answered, ‘before Abraham was born, I am!’ At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds” (John 8:56–59). The violent response of the Jews to Jesus’ “I AM” statement indicates they clearly understood what He was declaring—that He was the eternal God incarnate. Jesus was equating Himself with the "I AM" title God gave Himself in Exodus 3:14.
If Jesus had merely wanted to say He existed before Abraham’s time, He would have said, “Before Abraham, I was.” The Greek words translated “was,” in the case of Abraham, and “am,” in the case of Jesus, are quite different. The words chosen by the Spirit make it clear that Abraham was “brought into being,” but Jesus existed eternally (see John 1:1). There is no doubt that the Jews understood what He was saying because they took up stones to kill Him for making Himself equal with God (John 5:18). Such a statement, if not true, was blasphemy and the punishment prescribed by the Mosaic Law was death (Leviticus 24:11–14). But Jesus committed no blasphemy; He was and is God, the second Person of the Godhead, equal to the Father in every way.
Jesus used the same phrase “I AM” in seven declarations about Himself. In all seven, He combines I AM with tremendous metaphors which express His saving relationship toward the world. All appear in the book of John. They are: I AM the Bread of Life (John 6:35, 41, 48, 51); I AM the Light of the World (John 8:12); I AM the Door of the Sheep (John 10:7, 9); I AM the Good Shepherd (John 10:11,14); I AM the Resurrection and the Life (John 11:25); I AM the Way, the Truth and the Life (John 14:6); and I AM the True Vine (John 15:1, 5).
REASON #2: Thomas calls Jesus “Lord and God” in Jn 20:28, in the Greek its κύριός (Lord) μου (my) καὶ (and) ὁ θεός (God) μου (my) or basically “my Lord and my God.” Some people try to make explanations to avoid it, such as Thomas spoke of two separate entities, Jesus as an earthly Lord, and God as the heavenly father that was up in the sky.
However that explanation fails as Thomas said to HIM, not to THEM, Jesus is “my Lord and my God.” Col. 2:9 is very clear, the fullness of deity or God-hood/God-ness dwells in Jesus. While we have Gods spirit living in us, WE cannot say the fullness of deity dwells in us. God lives in us, but his divine nature is not a part of us; Jesus on the other hand had the fullness of Gods divine nature in his body. That is the difference. Also see Heb 1:3.
REASON #3: The Granville Sharp Rule
Paul calls Jesus “God and Savior” in Titus 2:13. According to Granville Sharps Rule #1 (a rule used in interpreting Greek texts) “When the copulative kai (“and”) connects two personal nouns (“God,” “Savior”) which are singular and not proper nouns (such as names) both nouns refer to the first-named person.” Basically in case someone tries to say that this refers to two separate entities, the Greek grammar does not work that way. These two nouns (God/Savior) can only refer to one entity, Jesus. This rule is exceptionless. One must argue solely on theological grounds against these passages. There is truly no real grammatical objection that can be raised.
https://youtu.be/Wj6Ba7xci4Y
Reason #1: Jesus declared Himself God, "I AM."
Jesus, in response to the Pharisees’ question “Who do you think you are?” said, “‘Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it and was glad.’ ‘You are not yet fifty years old,’ the Jews said to him, ‘and you have seen Abraham!’ ‘I tell you the truth,’ Jesus answered, ‘before Abraham was born, I am!’ At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds” (John 8:56–59). The violent response of the Jews to Jesus’ “I AM” statement indicates they clearly understood what He was declaring—that He was the eternal God incarnate. Jesus was equating Himself with the "I AM" title God gave Himself in Exodus 3:14.
If Jesus had merely wanted to say He existed before Abraham’s time, He would have said, “Before Abraham, I was.” The Greek words translated “was,” in the case of Abraham, and “am,” in the case of Jesus, are quite different. The words chosen by the Spirit make it clear that Abraham was “brought into being,” but Jesus existed eternally (see John 1:1). There is no doubt that the Jews understood what He was saying because they took up stones to kill Him for making Himself equal with God (John 5:18). Such a statement, if not true, was blasphemy and the punishment prescribed by the Mosaic Law was death (Leviticus 24:11–14). But Jesus committed no blasphemy; He was and is God, the second Person of the Godhead, equal to the Father in every way.
Jesus used the same phrase “I AM” in seven declarations about Himself. In all seven, He combines I AM with tremendous metaphors which express His saving relationship toward the world. All appear in the book of John. They are: I AM the Bread of Life (John 6:35, 41, 48, 51); I AM the Light of the World (John 8:12); I AM the Door of the Sheep (John 10:7, 9); I AM the Good Shepherd (John 10:11,14); I AM the Resurrection and the Life (John 11:25); I AM the Way, the Truth and the Life (John 14:6); and I AM the True Vine (John 15:1, 5).
REASON #2: Thomas calls Jesus “Lord and God” in Jn 20:28, in the Greek its κύριός (Lord) μου (my) καὶ (and) ὁ θεός (God) μου (my) or basically “my Lord and my God.” Some people try to make explanations to avoid it, such as Thomas spoke of two separate entities, Jesus as an earthly Lord, and God as the heavenly father that was up in the sky.
However that explanation fails as Thomas said to HIM, not to THEM, Jesus is “my Lord and my God.” Col. 2:9 is very clear, the fullness of deity or God-hood/God-ness dwells in Jesus. While we have Gods spirit living in us, WE cannot say the fullness of deity dwells in us. God lives in us, but his divine nature is not a part of us; Jesus on the other hand had the fullness of Gods divine nature in his body. That is the difference. Also see Heb 1:3.
REASON #3: The Granville Sharp Rule
Paul calls Jesus “God and Savior” in Titus 2:13. According to Granville Sharps Rule #1 (a rule used in interpreting Greek texts) “When the copulative kai (“and”) connects two personal nouns (“God,” “Savior”) which are singular and not proper nouns (such as names) both nouns refer to the first-named person.” Basically in case someone tries to say that this refers to two separate entities, the Greek grammar does not work that way. These two nouns (God/Savior) can only refer to one entity, Jesus. This rule is exceptionless. One must argue solely on theological grounds against these passages. There is truly no real grammatical objection that can be raised.
https://youtu.be/Wj6Ba7xci4Y
Apple7
New member
Agree.
Great examples!
Example #3 has had even more work performed on it lately, and is called the 'Sharper Rule'....proving to be one of the most proven rules in Greek grammar!
keypurr
Well-known member
verse 58:
58. Y'shua said to them, "Amen, amen I say to you that before Awraham existed, I was" AENT
He just said he existed before.
See what the Aramaic says:
28. And Tooma answered and said o him,"My Master and my Elohim!" AENT
Reason to doubt what the Greek says.
Try reading in in the original friend. ARAMAIC.
13. looking for the blessed hope and the manifestation of the glory of the great Elohim and our Life-giver, Y'shua the Mashiyach. AENT
I guess the Greek is wrong.
Clearly, the text does not say that at all.
Adding our own modern ideas to what is actually IN the Bible is not a helpful way to interpret our Christian tradition.
Look up and look at the evidence for "the longer ending(s) of Mark."
I believe in the resurrection. You have not been paying attention. You read with inattention and to merely confirm your own prejudices.
Paul did not write anything about Jesus coming back in a flesh and blood body. He held that his resurrection body was a "glorified body."
We make an epistemological error when we view the resurrection myth with post-modern lenses.
yep, good post aikiddo
Maybe you haven't made yourself clear, you said "But in the original Mark, the earliest gospel, the women run away afraid. The resurrection is not described at all. And Paul does not appear to know of the empty tomb tradition at all. Jesus' resurrection means for Paul a "glorified body" not a physical resuscitation."
But I agree, Jesus returned in the form man will be resurrected in on the mansion worlds. The flesh and blood is gone, the burial cloths lay on the stone where Jesus' body once lay. When the apostles and others met with the resurrected person of Jesus, they had no way of understanding the new form they were dealing with.
achduke
Active member
Was Christ in the body that rose to the Father a glorified body or is the one he returns in the 2nd coming a different body?
Luke 24:39 Behold My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself. Handle Me and see, for a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see I have.