ECT How can there be a another Gospel based on Gal. 1:22 ? The faith Paul once destroy ?

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
The D'ist who think "the rest" is about other Judaistic things needs to show that from elsewhere in the NT (there is no such thing) and also needs to show that the restored Judaistic things is mentioned 'from the beginning of the world.'

But actually they don't, just as Rom 16 is not talking about a mystery from the beginning of time. Both passages are talking about a thing mentioned for several generations now: 'dia stomatos ton hagion ap' aionos autou propheton' (Acts 3:21). Once again the NT is saying that the coming of the Spirit and the eventual NHNE has been expressed all the time as found. This is not a mystery nor hidden. But that they were/are fulfilled in Christ, not Judaism--the law, THAT is the mystery that stumped that generation.

When they could not get it across to followers of Judaism, it was not that it was absent from the prophets or Psalms. It was because of the veil/blindness, 2 Cor 3:14+.

huh?
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
You constantly use the term "Judaism". What is it? DETAILS, remember?





See Paul's comments in Gal and Acts on his life (raising) in Judaism. It's the things they taught and said that he grew up in. It's found detailed but rejected in Phil 3. In eph 3, it thinks the promises to the nations happen through the law instead of the Gospel, which mystified them. In 2 Cor 3-5, it's reading the letter of the law and validating how it condemned men. In Jn 12, it thinks Messiah was to reign forever. It had a hedge of extra laws around the existing ones to prevent people from sinning against the Torah. It was very literalistic in mentality, as found in about 20 examples through the account of John. In Act 26, it kept the temple ops going so that it's hope would be fulfilled, which became a huge problem during the zealot take over. Instead that hope was fufilled in Christ's resurrection, meant to turn the whole thing in to a message for the whole world instead of a confusing and pointless battle for the land. it was totally stuck on the racial descendancy as the location of promise fulfillments.

Amazing that you are this far, and get compliments for asking a 'smart' question.

To know what is being communicated, it really helps to know the people or institution to which so many of Christ's and the apostle's things were being said. Why, for ex., would the apostles take the CRITICAL figure of David and say that the resurrection of Christ was the fulfillment of the promise that Messiah would reign as David's son? Why did that declaration stop Judaism from asking Christ anything further in the confrontational final week? David called him LORD; how can Messiah be an ordinary son? HE CAN NOT!!!
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
See Paul's comments in Gal and Acts on his life (raising) in Judaism. It's the things they taught and said that he grew up in. It's found detailed but rejected in Phil 3. In eph 3, it thinks the promises to the nations happen through the law instead of the Gospel, which mystified them. In 2 Cor 3-5, it's reading the letter of the law and validating how it condemned men. In Jn 12, it thinks Messiah was to reign forever. It had a hedge of extra laws around the existing ones to prevent people from sinning against the Torah. It was very literalistic in mentality, as found in about 20 examples through the account of John. In Act 26, it kept the temple ops going so that it's hope would be fulfilled, which became a huge problem during the zealot take over. Instead that hope was fufilled in Christ's resurrection, meant to turn the whole thing in to a message for the whole world instead of a confusing and pointless battle for the land. it was totally stuck on the racial descendancy as the location of promise fulfillments.

Amazing that you are this far, and get compliments for asking a 'smart' question.

To know what is being communicated, it really helps to know the people or institution to which so many of Christ's and the apostle's things were being said. Why, for ex., would the apostles take the CRITICAL figure of David and say that the resurrection of Christ was the fulfillment of the promise that Messiah would reign as David's son? Why did that declaration stop Judaism from asking Christ anything further in the confrontational final week? David called him LORD; how can Messiah be an ordinary son? HE CAN NOT!!!

From which commentary did you glean these pearls?
 

DAN P

Well-known member
The D'ist who think "the rest" is about other Judaistic things needs to show that from elsewhere in the NT (there is no such thing) and also needs to show that the restored Judaistic things is mentioned 'from the beginning of the world.'

But actually they don't, just as Rom 16 is not talking about a mystery from the beginning of time. Both passages are talking about a thing mentioned for several generations now: 'dia stomatos ton hagion ap' aionos autou propheton' (Acts 3:21). Once again the NT is saying that the coming of the Spirit and the eventual NHNE has been expressed all the time as found. This is not a mystery nor hidden. But that they were/are fulfilled in Christ, not Judaism--the law, THAT is the mystery that stumped that generation.

When they could not get it across to followers of Judaism, it was not that it was absent from the prophets or Psalms. It was because of the veil/blindness, 2 Cor 3:14+.


Hi and a STUPOR thimking , about Rom 16:25 !!

The Greek words KEPT SECRET or , an better reading is , HAVING KEPT SILENT is in the Greek PERFECT TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and is a PARTICIPLE !!

The PERFECT YENSE then means KEPT SILENT before time began and is now revealed to one man , PAUL in 1 Cor 15:8 and in Acts 9:6 as Israel has been set aside as written in 2 Cor 3:14-17 !!

dan p
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Hi and a STUPOR thimking , about Rom 16:25 !!

The Greek words KEPT SECRET or , an better reading is , HAVING KEPT SILENT is in the Greek PERFECT TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and is a PARTICIPLE !!

The PERFECT YENSE then means KEPT SILENT before time began and is now revealed to one man , PAUL in 1 Cor 15:8 and in Acts 9:6 as Israel has been set aside as written in 2 Cor 3:14-17 !!

dan p





There's nothing about being set aside in 2 Cor 3 although that is elsewhere. It's the opposite in 2 cor 3: that only in Christ is the veil removed. He knew that had happened to many of his people.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
There's nothing about being set aside in 2 Cor 3 although that is elsewhere. It's the opposite in 2 cor 3: that only in Christ is the veil removed. He knew that had happened to many of his people.

Hi and then EXPLAIN 2 Cor 3:13-17 IF YOU CAN ??

dan p
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Hi and then EXPLAIN 2 Cor 3:13-17 IF YOU CAN ??

dan p





There is nothing to be explained Dan. The concept is not even in the passage. As i said, the passage says that when any individual from Israel turns to Christ as the fulfillment of its hope, the veil is removed and they see what is actually going on in the OT. The same is true for D'ists, which are a neo-Judaism. 2 Cor 3 validates that God is not working with nations as such anymore. It is about individuals, and always has been. Only an inter-testament Judaism myth made people think otherwise, which Paul worked to unmake.

Vail is in Colorado, where they do a lot of dreaming and theorizing that never works.
 

God's Truth

New member
Indeed, especially with his credentials as a real writer and grammar scholar.

There are writing scholars who claim the Bible is full of writing errors. Which makes me laugh when I am dismissed in what I say because I don't always speak right, according to the experts.
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
This is for those with "0" % spiritual understanding !

When anyone witness for and of Jesus and anyone is saved that person has been resurrected from the dead into life.

Your welcome.

Resurrection/Anastasia pertains to the physical body of the believer and that event is yet future.
 
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