ECT Words have meaning unless of course you have bit into the lie of MAD.

Grosnick Marowbe

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Hall of Fame
We do not "Water baptize" today. In Matthew 3:11 John the Baptist states: "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:
 

Grosnick Marowbe

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Hall of Fame
Water baptism was a practice done by John the baptist for the sake of the House of Israel. When Christ came along, it was subsequently made unnecessary. Gentiles were never given the Law nor did they ever live under the Law. In His earthly Ministry Christ came only for the Lost Sheep of Israel. Matthew 15:24 "But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Eventually, Paul was sent to be the Apostle to the Gentiles and preaching the Grace Gospel. Whereas, Peter and the rest continued to preach the "Kingdom Gospel" to the House of Israel, after Christ returned to sit down at the right hand of God the Father.
 

Grosnick Marowbe

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There were two separate Gospels being preached 2000 years ago. The Kingdom Gospel to the House of Israel and The Grace Gospel to the Gentiles. Today, there's only one Gospel: The Grace Gospel which includes both Jew and Gentile alike. These two groups make up The Body of Christ.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Please quote the scripture that you are referring to so that I can be sure what you're talking about.

What ordinances added to what covenant?

In Galatians 3:19 Paul said, "What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come..."
 

dodge

New member
There were two separate Gospels being preached 2000 years ago. The Kingdom Gospel to the House of Israel and The Grace Gospel to the Gentiles. Today, there's only one Gospel: The Grace Gospel which includes both Jew and Gentile alike. These two groups make up The Body of Christ.

Nonsense ! There has NEVER been 2 Jesus' so there has never been 2 gospels.

You are confusing the 2 covenants the first was law and the 2nd was GRACE.

OT=law
NT= Grace

That is why Jesus said the law came by Moses but Grace and truth came by Jesus.


Jhn 1:17
For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Nonsense ! There has NEVER been 2 Jesus' so there has never been 2 gospels.

You are confusing the 2 covenants the first was law and the 2nd was GRACE.

OT=law
NT= Grace

That is why Jesus said the law came by Moses but Grace and truth came by Jesus.


Hi and you say the 1 was the Old Covenant and the other NT by bGRACE !!

iT is obvious you do not know what DIATHEKE /TESTAMENT really means and you brought it up so explain what NEW TESTAMENT really means ?

dan p
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
There were two separate Gospels being preached 2000 years ago. The Kingdom Gospel to the House of Israel and The Grace Gospel to the Gentiles. Today, there's only one Gospel: The Grace Gospel which includes both Jew and Gentile alike. These two groups make up The Body of Christ.

Is Christ a Jew or Gentile? And what about his father, Jew or Gentile?
 

Right Divider

Body part
In Galatians 3:19 Paul said, "What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come..."
I guess that you need to read it again then. is does not say that laws were added to a covenant.

Gal 3:15-22 (AKJV/PCE)
(3:15) Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though [it be] but a man's covenant, yet [if it be] confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto. (3:16) Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ. (3:17) And this I say, [that] the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. (3:18) For if the inheritance [be] of the law, [it is] no more of promise: but God gave [it] to Abraham by promise. (3:19) Wherefore then [serveth] the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; [and it was] ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator. (3:20) Now a mediator is not [a mediator] of one, but God is one. (3:21) [Is] the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law. (3:22) But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

The law was the covenant added.... to what?
 

dodge

New member
Hi and you say the 1 was the Old Covenant and the other NT by bGRACE !!

iT is obvious you do not know what DIATHEKE /TESTAMENT really means and you brought it up so explain what NEW TESTAMENT really means ?

dan p

FYI, the OT ends with Malachi, and the NT starts with Mark.

Mads do not get to rearrange the time sequences and events to make them fit into MAD.

MAD fails on all scriptural accounts.
 
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john w

New member
Hall of Fame
Nonsense ! There has NEVER been 2 Jesus' so there has never been 2 gospels.

Translated: There has NEVER been 2 Jesus' so there has never been 2 or 3 heavens, has never been 2 churches, has never been 2 earth's("new heavens and a new earth"), has never been more than 1 baptism's............................................................as it all says the same thing!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!


Stay away from this deceiver, as his "ministry" is sophistry, deceit, kindergarten antics, and is an embarrassment to the boc, not studying the details of the book, carelessly "studying" it.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
FYI, the OT ends with Malachi, and the NT begins with Mark.

Made up. Matthew-Mark, at least up to the dbr, is all OT.

"the NT begins with Mark."-Dodgeball


vs.

Hebrews 9 KJV

16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.

17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.


Clueless Dodge. He just makes things up, getting his jazz from his SOF, not the bible.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
The law was the covenant added.... to what?

The Mosaic ordinances were added to the covenant made with Abraham and Christ.

The Mosaic law did not annul the promises of the prior covenant.

In Romans 15:8-12 Paul said, "Now I say that Jesus Christ has become a servant to the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made to the fathers and that the Gentiles might glorify God for His mercy, as it is written: “For this reason I will confess to You among the Gentiles and sing to Your name.”

And again he says: “Rejoice, O Gentiles, with His people!”

And again: “Praise the Lord, all you Gentiles! Laud Him, all you peoples!”

And again, Isaiah says: “There shall be a root of Jesse and He who shall rise to reign over the Gentiles,
In Him the Gentiles shall hope.”

Paul confirmed the Father's promises to the fathers of Israel.
 

dodge

New member
We do not "Water baptize" today. In Matthew 3:11 John the Baptist states: "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

YOU are so confused and deceived where to start ?

Jesus was baptized in water

Paul was baptized in water

Every person recorded in scripture that was saved was baptized in water.

YOU cannot produce ONE scripture that says water baptism was done away with NOT ONE.

The one Lord , one baptism, one faith means 1 spiritual baptism NOT that water baptism was done away with.
 
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