I'm still trying to understand the whole of Divine Truth - and please don't tell me you have a handle of it all. What I do know is that ultra-literalism is not always the best interpretative method, especially when it comes to apocalyptic prophecy.
Of course you must make the following words apply to just apocalyptic language because everyone knows that nothing like that happened in 70AD:
"Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken" (Mt.24:29).
Of course if things will actually appear that way after the great tribulation is over then preterism is proven to be false. So the preterists have no other choice to say that this is nothing but apocalyptic language.
But it is obvious that the following people are not reacting to apocalyptic language but instead to actual events:
"And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring; Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken" (Lk.21:25-26).
If we are to believe the preterists then we must throw our reason to the wind and believe that here we see people reacting in this way to nothing but apocalyptic language!
Another thing which is totally illogical with the preterists is the way that they take everything prior to Matthew 24:29 in a literal fashion and then all of a sudden the words of Jesus about the signs in the sky cannot be taken literally.
And I still have yet to hear a sane explanation from any preterist explaining when the following prophecy took place:
"Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah...And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more" (Jer.31:31,34).
Paul certainly believed that this prophecy was to be understood literally, as witnessed by his following words:
"And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins" (Ro.11:26-27).
When in the past did all those of the house of Israel and of the house of Judah have their sins forgiven? And when in the past did the Deliverer come out of Sion and turn all ungodliness from Jacob?
Surely you must have an answer to this. What is your answer?
And while you are at it please tell us when the following prophecy was fulfilled:
"I will gather all the nations to Jerusalem to fight against it; the city will be captured, the houses ransacked, and the women raped. Half of the city will go into exile, but the rest of the people will not be taken from the city. Then the Lord will go out and fight against those nations, as he fights on a day of battle. On that day his feet will stand on the Mount of Olives, east of Jerusalem" (Zech.14:2-4).
Why should we not believe that this verse is not to be taken literally. After all, earlier we read:
"On that day the Lord will shield those who live in Jerusalem, so that the feeblest among them will be like David, and the house of David will be like God, like the angel of the Lord going before them. On that day I will set out to destroy all the nations that attack Jerusalem" (Zech.12:8-9).
When were all of these prophecies fulfilled?
I think you mean I haven't proven that there will be any type of kingdom in effect at 70AD, correct?
If David referred to Israel as the "Kingdom of the Lord" in I Chronicles 28:5 - doesn't mean there was a type of Kingdom at 70AD?
That is speaking of the kingdom which the Apostles asked was going to be restored to Israel at Acts 1:6. It wasn't restored to Israel as late as Acts 1. So when do you say that it was restored?
Of course you must invent a kingdom which was strictly in regard to Israel or else you must admit that the following prophecy has not yet been fulfilled:
"He that soweth the good seed is the Son of man; The field is the world; the good seed are the children of the kingdom; but the tares are the children of the wicked one; The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the age; and the reapers are the angels. As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this age. The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear" (Mt. 13:37-43).
Here we can see that the Lord Jesus speaks of a harvest that will happen at the "end of the age", the "end of this age." He also makes it clear that the harvest will take place in the field, and He says that the "field is the world."
But according to your ideas the field is the world of the Jews and nothing more. Al you are doing is perverting the words of the Lord Jesus in order to try to make them match the teaching of the preterists.