Given the provisions for Gentiles to become full Israelites - and given the warnings that those who did not follow the provisions of the covenant could be cut off from Israel (Gen 17:14) - isn't it hypothetically possible that the Jeremiah prophecy could have been promised to a nation composed of 50% Gentile origin and 50% Jewish origin? My point is that physical relationship to the fathers was not a key component in who this prophecy was given to.
So are you saying that the prophecy of Jeremiah 31:31-34 has already been fulfilled?
All who are truly Abraham's descendants in the eyes of God have had their sins forgiven.
You ignore the content of this promise of the Lord here in "bold":
"Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord: But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more" (Jer.31:31-34).
This says that the fathers of those of the house of Israel and the house of Judah were the physical descendants of Abraham,Isaac and Jacob. There was never a time in the past when both the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and Gentiles who had become full Israelites had their ALL had their sins forgiven. And you have no place in your eschatology for the fulfillment of these promises of the Lord at Jeremiah 31:31-34. In other words, your theology makes the LORD someone who makes promises and then does not fulfill those promises!
Jesus words in Matthew 26:28 show that Jesus was initiating the New Covenant. "for this is My blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for forgiveness of sins."
Yes, He initiated the New Covenant but when it came time for Israel to fully enter into that covenant she failed. Here Peter told Israel what she must do to enter into the New Covenant:
"Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord. And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you" (Acts 3:19-20).
If Israel would have repented then she would have had all of her sins blotted out. But since she didn't repent then her sins were not blotted out. Are you willing to argue that she entered into the New Covenant despite the fact that she remained obstinate?
Why does Paul give the Corinthian church instructions on how to properly take part in the cup of the new covenant if they have no part in the new covenant?
"After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me. For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come" (1 Cor.11:25-26; KJV).
This speaks of a commemoration of the Lord Jesus' death spoken of in His Last Will and Testament, the gospel -
"justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."
Why in the world would you imagine that the New Covenant applied to the Body of Christ since it is only applied to the house of Israel and the house of Judah?
Isn't Hebrews 8:6 proof that the New Covenant has been enacted? "But now He has obtained a more excellent ministry, by as much as He is also the mediator of a better covenant, which has been enacted on better promises."
The Lord Jesus is the Mediator of a better testament:
"Therefore, He is the mediator of a new testament, so that those who are called might receive the promise of the eternal inheritance, because a death has taken place for redemption from the transgressions committed under the first covenant" (Heb.9:15; KJV).
Before we get to Romans 11, Paul says in Romans 9:27 (quoting Isaiah) that it is the remnant that will be saved. (vs. 27).
At that time it was a remnant which was being saved.
And in Romans 10:12,13, it says "whoever will call upon the Lord will be saved", "for there is no distinction between Jew and Greek."
So, what is your point. Nothing about that changes Paul's words that in the future "all of Israel will be changed."
Paul says "and in this way all Israel will be saved.
Here in bold is the "way" which all Israel will be saved:
"and in this way all Israel will be saved. As it is written: “The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob" (Ro.11:26).
When in the past did the Deliverer come out of Sion and turn all ungodliness from Jacob?
Surely you must have an answer to this. What is your answer?
And while you are at it please tell us when the following prophecy was fulfilled:
"I will gather all the nations to Jerusalem to fight against it; the city will be captured, the houses ransacked, and the women raped. Half of the city will go into exile, but the rest of the people will not be taken from the city. Then the Lord will go out and fight against those nations, as he fights on a day of battle. On that day his feet will stand on the Mount of Olives, east of Jerusalem" (Zech.14:2-4).
Why should we not believe that this verse is not to be taken literally. After all, earlier we read:
"On that day the Lord will shield those who live in Jerusalem, so that the feeblest among them will be like David, and the house of David will be like God, like the angel of the Lord going before them. On that day I will set out to destroy all the nations that attack Jerusalem" (Zech.12:8-9).
When were all of these prophecies fulfilled?
In what way is "all Israel" saved? By the saving of unhardened remnant Israel and the saving of Gentiles.
Jeremiah 31:31-34 tells us exactly how that salvation will happen. But of course you have no place for the fulfillment of the LORD's promise there.
I'm still trying to understand the whole of Divine Truth - and please don't tell me you have a handle of it all. What I do know is that ultra-literalism is not always the best interpretative method, especially when it comes to apocalyptic prophecy.
Of course you must make the following words apply to just apocalyptic language because everyone knows that nothing like that happened in 70AD:
"Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken" (Mt.24:29).
Of course if things will actually appear that way after the great tribulation is over then preterism is proven to be false. So the preterists have no other choice to say that this is nothing but apocalyptic language.
But it is obvious that the following people are not reacting to apocalyptic language but instead to actual events:
"And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring; Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken" (Lk.21:25-26).
If we are to believe the preterists then we must throw our reason to the wind and believe that here we see people reacting in this way to nothing but apocalyptic language!
Another thing which is totally illogical with the preterists is the way that they take everything prior to Matthew 24:29 in a literal fashion and then all of a sudden the words of Jesus about the signs in the sky cannot be taken literally.
