ECT The Gospel Preached at Pentecost

dodge

New member
No you don't but you are too blind to see it. The word translated "taketh away" must be in the future tense in order for your interpretation of John 1:29 to be correct. But the fact that the word is in the "present" tense makes no difference to you because you have no respect for what the Scriptures actually say.

No matter how YOU pervert and change scripture that is EXACTLY what Jesus accomplished in His D.B.R. and ascension, and J.B was right when said behold the Lamb of God which takes away the sin of the world.
 

Danoh

New member
Jerry and Danoh have the same problem: just because the event of the cross is a couple years ahead it 'doesn't count' when Jesus is doing something, let's say, in the first month of his ministry, or if John the B says it.

That's how you get such wacko remarks about the future tense from Jerry.

Then you get these huge generalizations behind which all kinds of 2P2P is actually hiding, even though 2P2P is a total clunk. 'Gen to Rev in light of Rom to Phil' which can mean about 30 things, but they want it to mean '2P2P is true.'

Must be similar to your assertion that you have me on ignore :D
 

DAN P

Well-known member
No matter how YOU pervert and change scripture that is EXACTLY what Jesus accomplished in His D.B.R. and ascension, and J.B was right when said behold the Lamb of God which takes away the sin of the world.


Hi and the Greek word "TAKETH AWAY " is in the Greek PRESENT TENSE and that places that word in the OT !!

But in Jhon 19:30 , where Jesus says " IT IS FINISHED " in the PERFECT TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD !!

The Indicative Mood says what is written is a FACT !!

The PASSIVE VOICE means Jesus laid down His life !!

And the PERFECT tense means Christ can ONLY DIE ONCE , for sins PAST , PRESENT and FUTURE and that means Christ died for ALL , so Jerry we are right , so remember John 19:30 !!

dan p
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I believe that the gospel of the kingdom was preached until Mt 12 but once it was rejected Jesus taught that he would die for the sins of man.

So you admit that there were two different gospels. At least I see that you are beginning to see the truth.

Is not Paul making reference to the gospel of the kingdom here?:

“Now I know that none of you among whom I have gone about preaching the kingdom will ever see me again"
(Acts 20:25).​
 

DAN P

Well-known member
So you admit that there were two different gospels. At least I see that you are beginning to see the truth.

Is not Paul making reference to the gospel of the kingdom here?:

“Now I know that none of you among whom I have gone about preaching the kingdom will ever see me again"
(Acts 20:25).​


Hi and the KJV reads differently and it reads the KINGDOM OF GOD !!

From I have read " preaching the Kingdom " was taken from the Weastern Greek Text and that makes it seem , to mean it is speaking of the Kingdom of HEAVEN , not true !!

The Kingdom of God is the coreect readinf and speaks to the UNIVERSAL KINGDOM of God !!

dan p
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
The Kingdom of God is the coreect readinf and speaks to the UNIVERSAL KINGDOM of God !!

So is this passage speaking about the universal kingdom?:

"Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel"
(Mk.1:14-15).​

if the reference is to the universal kingdom then the earth was already included in that kingdom. However, at the time the Lord Jesus was preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God it was not yet on the earth.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
So is this passage speaking about the universal kingdom?:

"Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel"
(Mk.1:14-15).​

if the reference is to the universal kingdom then the earth was already included in that kingdom. However, at the time the Lord Jesus was preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God it was not yet on the earth.




It never was a civic authority Jerry. See Dan 2. It has an authority that no one can compete with. But it is not the kind of this world's states.
 

intojoy

BANNED
Banned
So you admit that there were two different gospels. At least I see that you are beginning to see the truth.

Is not Paul making reference to the gospel of the kingdom here?:

“Now I know that none of you among whom I have gone about preaching the kingdom will ever see me again"
(Acts 20:25).​

Negative Jerry. Not the gospel of the kingdom. Why the danoh would Paul be proclaiming that the kingdom was at hand? It wasn't. It had gone into mystery form as of the unpardonable sin of Mt 12 highlighted by Christ in the parables.


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intojoy

BANNED
Banned
Hi and what verse in MATT 12 ??


The Law of Moses was taught at Acts 21:21 and just to mention another of many Gal 2:7 where ; THE CIRCUMCISION " is still taught and that is way passed Matt 12 !!

dan p

Stick to Calvinism arguments. Unless you're willing to develop a complete biblical Israelology we can't hold a conversation.


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intojoy

BANNED
Banned
Bonus Material:

“Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows; yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.”
??Isaiah? ?53:4? ?ASV??

Now Israel recognizes that He took upon Himself their suffering. They recognize that His suffering was substitutionary.

(1) wounded in Hebrew means pierced through.
(2) bruised in Hebrew means crushed.
(3) chastisement leading to peace for believers was placed upon Him.
(4) with His stripes we are healed.

WHEN HE WAS SUFFERING they considered Him to be suffering for His own sins.


“All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and Jehovah hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.”
??Isaiah? ?53:6? ?ASV??

Israel's condition.
Once again the element of substitution.
Isaiah speaking says "we Jews" have gone astray and the punishment we should have received was placed upon Him. I (Peter 2:21-25 the background of these verses is here in Is 53).





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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Negative Jerry. Not the gospel of the kingdom. Why the danoh would Paul be proclaiming that the kingdom was at hand? It wasn't.

The gospel of the kingdom is centered on the King, the Christ. The first message which Paul preached after being converted was the "gospel of the kingdom" in the synagogues of the Jews:

"And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God...proving that this is the very Christ"
(Acts 9:20,22).​

That was the same gospel which Paul continued to preach to the Jews:

"And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ"
(Acts17:2,30).​

That is the same message that Apollos preached to the Jews:

"For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publicly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus is Christ"
(Acts18:28).​

That is the same "good news" which Peter preached to the Jews on the day of Pentecost:

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36).​

So we can clearly see that the central message that was preached to the Jews is the fact that it is Jesus Who is the Christ, the Son of God. and those who believed that "good news" (gospel) were born of God and received eternal life.

Despite these facts you say that Peter and Paul and Apollos were preaching to the Jews that the Lord Jesus died for our sins.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Bonus Material:

“Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows; yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.”
??Isaiah? ?53:4? ?ASV??

That is exactly what Matthew was referring to here:

"That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took our infirmities, and bare our sicknesses"
(Mt.8:170.​

That happened when the Lord Jesus walked the earth and that is why the Baptist used the "present" tense and not the "future" tense at John 1:29.

Son, I send you to school and buy you books and all you do is to chew on them. You still have not learned the difference between the "present" tense and the "future" tense.
 

intojoy

BANNED
Banned
The gospel of the kingdom is centered on the King, the Christ. The first message which Paul preached after being converted was the "gospel of the kingdom" in the synagogues of the Jews:

"And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God...proving that this is the very Christ"
(Acts 9:20,22).​

That was the same gospel which Paul continued to preach to the Jews:

"And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ"
(Acts17:2,30).​

That is the same message that Apollos preached to the Jews:

"For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publicly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus is Christ"
(Acts18:28).​

That is the same "good news" which Peter preached to the Jews on the day of Pentecost:

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36).​

So we can clearly see that the central message that was preached to the Jews is the fact that it is Jesus Who is the Christ, the Son of God. and those who believed that "good news" (gospel) were born of God and received eternal life.

Despite these facts you say that Peter and Paul and Apollos were preaching to the Jews that the Lord Jesus died for our sins.

“For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.”
??Romans? ?1:16? ?ASV??
http://bible.com/12/rom.1.16.asv



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dodge

New member
Hi and the Greek word "TAKETH AWAY " is in the Greek PRESENT TENSE and that places that word in the OT !!

But in Jhon 19:30 , where Jesus says " IT IS FINISHED " in the PERFECT TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD !!

The Indicative Mood says what is written is a FACT !!

The PASSIVE VOICE means Jesus laid down His life !!

And the PERFECT tense means Christ can ONLY DIE ONCE , for sins PAST , PRESENT and FUTURE and that means Christ died for ALL , so Jerry we are right , so remember John 19:30 !!

dan p

dan it is not rocket science. AFTER J.B. prophesied and bore witness to "the lamb that takes away the sins of the word" is when Jesus was crucified. Duhhhhhh !
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
The gospel of the kingdom is centered on the King, the Christ. The first message which Paul preached after being converted was the "gospel of the kingdom" in the synagogues of the Jews:

"And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God...proving that this is the very Christ"
(Acts 9:20,22).​

That was the same gospel which Paul continued to preach to the Jews:

"And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ"
(Acts17:2,30).​

That is the same message that Apollos preached to the Jews:

"For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publicly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus is Christ"
(Acts18:28).​

That is the same "good news" which Peter preached to the Jews on the day of Pentecost:

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36).​

So we can clearly see that the central message that was preached to the Jews is the fact that it is Jesus Who is the Christ, the Son of God. and those who believed that "good news" (gospel) were born of God and received eternal life.

Despite these facts you say that Peter and Paul and Apollos were preaching to the Jews that the Lord Jesus died for our sins.



So Paul was psychotic up at Corinth and said "Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again, according the scriptures" when asked to say what the Gospel was. Got it. Typical 2P2P nonsense. They always divide, they always see double.

He said those things to Corinth pretty much when he was doing the things in Acts.
 

intojoy

BANNED
Banned
Bonus Material:

“Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows; yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.”
??Isaiah? ?53:4? ?ASV??

Now Israel recognizes that He took upon Himself their suffering. They recognize that His suffering was substitutionary.

(1) wounded in Hebrew means pierced through.
(2) bruised in Hebrew means crushed.
(3) chastisement leading to peace for believers was placed upon Him.
(4) with His stripes we are healed.

WHEN HE WAS SUFFERING they considered Him to be suffering for His own sins.


“All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and Jehovah hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.”
??Isaiah? ?53:6? ?ASV??

Israel's condition.
Once again the element of substitution.
Isaiah speaking says "we Jews" have gone astray and the punishment we should have received was placed upon Him. I (Peter 2:21-25 the background of these verses is here in Is 53).





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Yeah, road to Emmaus lesson here my children.


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Interplanner

Well-known member
Jery,
the "must needs" of Acts 17 is not 'to fulfill a scripture or prophecy' only; it was necessary for atonement. It was both of those things, because the themes that Paul "was allowed" to speak about from the Scriptures (and not go beyond) were listed in Acts 26

2P2P always divides and sees double where there is no need.
 
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