Matthew 12:40

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genuineoriginal

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genuineoriginal,
re: "You are attempting to change the meaning of the original phrase from what was commonly understood 1900 years..."

And if it was common, there would have to be examples in order to say it was common. So far no one has come up with any.
Or: it was common so there was no need for anyone to preserve an explanation of it for a future generation that might have lost the common meaning.
 

rstrats

Active member
genuineoriginal,
re: "Or: it was common so there was no need for anyone to preserve an explanation of it for a future generation that might have lost the common meaning."

So how can anyone legitimately say it was common usage if there are no examples?
 

rstrats

Active member
RevTestament,
re: "..."...Christ was actually crucified on Wed eve..."

What day of the week is that and does "eve" refer to the whole calendar day as Christmas eve does?
 

aikido7

BANNED
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Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a certain number of days, as well as a certain number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?
The number three figures often in mythology. Its enumeration is just something that appeals to us:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rule_of_three_(writing)

Seven is another significant number as many in Jesus's day believed there were seven heavens. Paul writes that he only got to the third level.
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a certain number of days, as well as a certain number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?

The reading is quite clear, Jesus specifically stated three days AND three nights
 

jamie

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LIFETIME MEMBER
In the Bible, the season of light (Gen. i. 5), lasting "from dawn [lit. "the rising of the morning"] to the coming forth of the stars" (Neh. iv. 15, 17). The term "day" is used also to denote a period of twenty-four hours (Ex. xxi. 21).

In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day.

Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time.

The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar). "The day" denotes: (a) Day of the Lord; (b) the Day of Atonement; (c) the treatise of the Mishnah that contains the laws concerning the Day of Atonement (See Yoma and Sabbath).

(The Jewish Encyclopedia/ Day)
 

rstrats

Active member
With the new year upon us, maybe there will be someone new looking in who knows of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in post #365. And again, remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. As stated, there are other topics that do that. However, there are those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language such as the Messiah saying that He would be in the heart of the earth for 3 nights when He knew that it would only be for 2 nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern had to have been used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise. So far no one has come forth with any.
 

jamie

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In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning, a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day.

Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time.

The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar).
(Jewish Encyclopedia/ Day)​

Augustine says (De Trin. iv): "There were thirty-six hours from the evening of His burial to the dawn of the resurrection, that is, a whole night with a whole day, and a whole night." (Catholic Encycloprdia/ Summa Theologica > Third Part > Question 51)

Jesus said he would be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights. (Matthew 12:40)

Now the question becomes does God reckon time by Jewish idioms or by Catholic doctrine? If so then he must abide by man's reckoning with regard to parts of three days or the Catholic doctrine of thirty-six hours.

On the other hand, what if we take Jesus' words literally with regard to the sign of Jonah?

The expression "three days" occurs 61 times in the KJV. The expression "three days and three night" occurs 3 times in the KJV.

Jesus could have said he would be in the earth three days, but he didn't. Jesus was much more specific. Why? Was it because he would be entombed for a specific period of time or was he entombed for an undefined period of time according to Jewish idioms?

The problem with the part of a day theory and the Catholic thirty-six hour theory is that neither allows for two Sabbaths.

Now when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James and Salome bought spices that they might come and anoint Him. (Mark 16:1 NKJV)​

What Sabbath?

Therefore, because it was the Preparation Day, that the bodies should not remain on the cross on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a high day), the Jews asked Pilate that their legs might be broken and that they might be taken away. (John 19:31 NKJV)

That Sabbath was a High Day, an annual Sabbath.

So when the annual Sabbath passed the women bought spices so that they might anoint the body. Then they returned and prepared spices and fragrant oils. And they rested on the Sabbath according to the commandment. (Luke 23:56 NKJV)

After the annual Sabbath the women bought spices, prepared their spices and then rested on the weekly Sabbath.

There were two Sabbaths which doesn't fit within a Jewish three day idiom or the Catholics' thirty-six hour theory.

Why can't the sign of Jonah be true? Jesus' sign allows for the two Sabbaths.
 

rstrats

Active member
jamie,
re: "In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day..."

And I agree as I've previously stated several times. But, I'm looking for examples which show where a daytime was reckoned as a daytime when no part of the daytime could have taken place or where a night time was reckoned as a night time when no part of the night time could have taken place. So far no one has provided any such examples.
 

jamie

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LIFETIME MEMBER
And I agree as I've previously stated several times. But, I'm looking for examples which show where a daytime was reckoned as a daytime when no part of the daytime could have taken place or where a night time was reckoned as a night time when no part of the night time could have taken place. So far no one has provided any such examples.

There could be a reason.

:think:
 

genuineoriginal

New member
In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning, a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day.

Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time.

The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar).
(Jewish Encyclopedia/ Day)​

Augustine says (De Trin. iv): "There were thirty-six hours from the evening of His burial to the dawn of the resurrection, that is, a whole night with a whole day, and a whole night." (Catholic Encycloprdia/ Summa Theologica > Third Part > Question 51)

Jesus said he would be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights. (Matthew 12:40)

Now the question becomes does God reckon time by Jewish idioms or by Catholic doctrine? If so then he must abide by man's reckoning with regard to parts of three days or the Catholic doctrine of thirty-six hours.
God reckons time according to His own standards.
In God's standards, a day refers to the daylight hours, a night refers to the nighttime hours, a day and night mentioned together are a consecutive daylight and nighttime.
God does not use the word day to refer to a consecutive daylight and nighttime period, instead He mentions both.

When God speaks of three days and three nights, this is a period of time that begins sometime during one daylight and nighttime period, continues through a second daylight and nighttime period, and ends sometime during a third daylight and nighttime period.
 

jamie

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LIFETIME MEMBER
God reckons time according to His own standards.
In God's standards, a day refers to the daylight hours, a night refers to the nighttime hours, a day and night mentioned together are a consecutive daylight and nighttime.
God does not use the word day to refer to a consecutive daylight and nighttime period, instead He mentions both.

When God speaks of three days and three nights, this is a period of time that begins sometime during one daylight and nighttime period, continues through a second daylight and nighttime period, and ends sometime during a third daylight and nighttime period.

That's the sign of Jonah, three days and three nights. That makes six twelve hour periods, seventy-two hours.
 

genuineoriginal

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That's the sign of Jonah, three days and three nights. That makes six twelve hour periods, seventy-two hours.

By claiming that each daylight and nighttime period in the three days and three nights must include all the hours of the daylight period and all the hours of the nighttime period to equal 72 hours, you are imposing man's reckoning of time on the text and not God's.
 

Samie

New member
God reckons time according to His own standards.
In God's standards, a day refers to the daylight hours, a night refers to the nighttime hours, a day and night mentioned together are a consecutive daylight and nighttime.
God does not use the word day to refer to a consecutive daylight and nighttime period, instead He mentions both.

When God speaks of three days and three nights, this is a period of time that begins sometime during one daylight and nighttime period, continues through a second daylight and nighttime period, and ends sometime during a third daylight and nighttime period.
I agree.

From Greek Scriptures, Jesus resurrected early Saturday morning BEFORE sunrise. He was crucified on the daytime immediately following the night of His arrest. That same night He ate Passover with His disciples. Passover is a full moon feast. In 31 AD, exact time of first full moon after the vernal equinox was on March 27, 1 PM Jerusalem time, Tuesday. After sunset, Jesus ate Passover. That same night He was arrested and then crucified, Wednesday.

daytime Wed - daytime 1
nightime Wed - nightime 1
daytime Thu - daytime 2
nightime Thu - nightime 2
daytime Fri - daytime 3
nightime Fri until before sunrise Saturday - nightime 3

That's 3 days and 3 nights.

Sadly, translators tweaked the translation of "πρωῒ πρώτῃ σαββάτου". Instead of "early morning of the chief sabbath" they have it into "early morning of the first day of the week".

Mark 16:9 Ἀναστὰς δὲ πρωῒ πρώτῃ σαββάτου ἐφάνη πρῶτον Μαρίᾳ τῇ Μαγδαληνῇ, παρ' ἧς ἐκβεβλήκει ἑπτὰ δαιμόνια.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
I agree.

From Greek Scriptures, Jesus resurrected early Saturday morning BEFORE sunrise. He was crucified on the daytime immediately following the night of His arrest. That same night He ate Passover with His disciples. Passover is a full moon feast. In 31 AD, exact time of first full moon after the vernal equinox was on March 27, 1 PM Jerusalem time, Tuesday. After sunset, Jesus ate Passover. That same night He was arrested and then crucified, Wednesday.
You do not agree.

According to all records, Jesus died on the day of Preparation (Friday) and was raised after the Sabbath (on Sunday).
All this "Wednesday death Saturday resurrection" talk is anti-scriptural nonsense.
 
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