Matthew 12:40

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rstrats

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genuineoriginal,

re: "What reason do you have for doubting what Ignatius stated?"

That is still an issue for another topic.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
genuineoriginal,

re: "What reason do you have for doubting what Ignatius stated?"

That is still an issue for another topic.
This is the topic, as quoted from the OP:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a certain number of days, as well as a certain number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?
I provided documentation from the first century where Ignatius explained in detail what the Christians at that time understood the about the days and nights from the quote in Matthew 12:40.

Until you have provided any evidence that Ignatius was not correct, then the statements of Ignatius are to be taken as the documented evidence for what Matthew 12:40 meant in the first century.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
genuineoriginal,

re: "What reason do you have for doubting what Ignatius stated?"

That is still an issue for another topic.
This is the topic, as quoted from the OP:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a certain number of days, as well as a certain number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?
I provided documentation from the first century where Ignatius explained in detail what the Christians at that time understood the about the days and nights from the quote in Matthew 12:40.

Until you have provided any evidence that Ignatius was not correct, then the statements of Ignatius are to be taken as the documented evidence for what Matthew 12:40 meant in the first century.


_____
Ignatius Epistle to the Trallians Chapter 9
On the day of the preparation, then, at the third hour, He received the sentence from Pilate, the Father permitting that to happen; at the sixth hour He was crucified; at the ninth hour He gave up the ghost; and before sunset He was buried. During the Sabbath He continued under the earth in the tomb in which Joseph of Arimathæa had laid Him. At the dawning of the Lord’s day He arose from the dead, according to what was spoken by Himself, “As Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly, so shall the Son of man also be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” The day of the preparation, then, comprises the passion; the Sabbath embraces the burial; the Lord’s Day contains the resurrection.
_____​
 

rstrats

Active member
genuineoriginal,
re: "I provided documentation from the first century where Ignatius explained in detail what the Christians at that time understood the about the days and nights from the quote in Matthew 12:40."


I don't see where Ignatius provided examples to support those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language where a day or a night was counted as a day or a night when no part of the day or night took place. If it was common, there ought to be examples in order for that assertion to be made.
 

rstrats

Active member
genuineoriginal,

I should have posed post #345 as a question. Where does Ignatius provide examples to support those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language where a day or a night was counted as a day or a night when no part of the day or the night took place?
 

MichaelCadry

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Dear rstrats,

You might be interested that both Passover and Easter are on the same days this year. Also a blood moon occurs on Passover. It should be interesting.

God's Best For You!!

Michael
 

JonahofAkron

New member
genuineoriginal,
re: "I provided documentation from the first century where Ignatius explained in detail what the Christians at that time understood the about the days and nights from the quote in Matthew 12:40."


I don't see where Ignatius provided examples to support those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language where a day or a night was counted as a day or a night when no part of the day or night took place. If it was common, there ought to be examples in order for that assertion to be made.
I greatly respect genuineoriginal , but have to disagree with his theory on this. If Messiah hadn't started the days and the nights, the issue could possibly lean m oh really in favor of a sixth day crucifixion. As it stands, a Wednesday crucifixion makes more sens of the text. Especially taking the 'high' Sabbath into account.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
genuineoriginal,

I should have posed post #345 as a question. Where does Ignatius provide examples to support those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language where a day or a night was counted as a day or a night when no part of the day or the night took place?

Ignatius plainly stated what the Christians in the first century understood as the meaning behind Jesus's words about the "three days and three nights."
Here it is again:
"The day of the preparation, then, comprises the passion; the Sabbath embraces the burial; the Lord’s Day contains the resurrection."

The three days mentioned are the crucifixion on Friday, the time Jesus was in the grave on Saturday, and the resurrection on Sunday.

This has been how Christians have understood the "three days and three nights" since the beginning of Christianity until the recent Wednesday crucifixion movement was started.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
...when Jesus got to Lazarus' burial place, he was there already 4 days.

True.

Jesus said, "Take ye away the stone."

Martha, the sister of him that was dead, saith unto him, "Lord, by this time he stinketh for he hath been dead four days."
(John 11:39 KJV)​
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Two nights and one day do not meet Jesus' sign of Jonah.
The writings of Ignatius say Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday.
Are you claiming that Jesus was a false prophet, or are you claiming that the people of the first century who talked to the people at the event couldn't figure out that there was a difference between Wednesday and Friday?
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
The writings of Ignatius say Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday.
Are you claiming that Jesus was a false prophet, or are you claiming that the people of the first century who talked to the people at the event couldn't figure out that there was a difference between Wednesday and Friday?

Yeah but the holiday would be too long for the Romans.

LA
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Every one of the early Christian writers that wrote about the crucifixion or the resurrection agree that Jesus was crucified on Friday and rose on Sunday.

There is no reason to doubt the accuracy of their accounts, so the next logical thing to question is our interpretation of the phrase "three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."

Most people focus on trying to figure out how Jesus could have been dead for the "three days and three nights" of the prophecy.

There are others that question what Jesus meant by "the heart of the earth."

Where else in the Bible is this phrase (or any other like it) used for death?
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Ignatius plainly stated what the Christians in the first century understood as the meaning behind Jesus's words about the "three days and three nights."
Here it is again:
"The day of the preparation, then, comprises the passion; the Sabbath embraces the burial; the Lord’s Day contains the resurrection."

The three days mentioned are the crucifixion on Friday, the time Jesus was in the grave on Saturday, and the resurrection on Sunday.

This has been how Christians have understood the "three days and three nights" since the beginning of Christianity until the recent Wednesday crucifixion movement was started.

The writings of Ignatius say Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday.
Are you claiming that Jesus was a false prophet, or are you claiming that the people of the first century who talked to the people at the event couldn't figure out that there was a difference between Wednesday and Friday?

:thumb: Yep, and it fits the plain sense of the narratives of all four gospel accounts!
 

JonahofAkron

New member
Every one of the early Christian writers that wrote about the crucifixion or the resurrection agree that Jesus was crucified on Friday and rose on Sunday.

There is no reason to doubt the accuracy of their accounts, so the next logical thing to question is our interpretation of the phrase "three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."

Most people focus on trying to figure out how Jesus could have been dead for the "three days and three nights" of the prophecy.

There are others that question what Jesus meant by "the heart of the earth."

Where else in the Bible is this phrase (or any other like it) used for death?
In what period are these writers writing? Who else wrote about it?
 
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