Do you believe any of the Gospels got the timing right?
Luke and Mark lay it out correctly.
Do you believe any of the Gospels got the timing right?
Luke and Mark lay it out correctly.
Someone new looking in may be interested in knowing that the writings of the early church fathers explained the meaning of the three days and three nights in Matthew 12:40:Someone new looking in who thinks that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language may know of examples of writing that show that it was common to say that a night time and/or a daytime was involved in an event when no part of the night time and/or no part of the daytime actually occurred.
The Ignatius quote does not satisfy the OP request. It doesn't provide proof that saying that a night time and/or a daytime would be involved with an event when no part of the night time and/or no part of the daytime could have occurred, was indeed a common way of speaking.
Someone new looking in may be interested in knowing that the writings of the early church fathers explained the meaning of the three days and three nights in Matthew 12:40:
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Ignatius Epistle to the Trallians Chapter 9
On the day of the preparation, then, at the third hour, He received the sentence from Pilate, the Father permitting that to happen; at the sixth hour He was crucified; at the ninth hour He gave up the ghost; and before sunset He was buried. During the Sabbath He continued under the earth in the tomb in which Joseph of Arimathæa had laid Him. At the dawning of the Lord’s day He arose from the dead, according to what was spoken by Himself, “As Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly, so shall the Son of man also be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” The day of the preparation, then, comprises the passion; the Sabbath embraces the burial; the Lord’s Day contains the resurrection.
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Ignatius of Antioch lived 35 CE to 117 CE, which was during the time that the Gospels were written and was taught by the Apostle John, who was an eyewitness to the events written in the Gospels and the writer of one of the Gospels.
It provides proof that the people living 1900 years ago had no problem understanding that the three days and three nights referred to were the day of the passion, the Sabbath, and the Lord's Day. These are commonly called Friday, Saturday, and Sunday in our calendar.genuineoriginal,
The Ignatius quote does not satisfy the OP request. It doesn't provide proof that saying that a night time and/or a daytime would be involved with an event when no part of the night time and/or no part of the daytime could have occurred, was indeed a common way of speaking.
There are some people that believe that all of Ignatius' letters are forgeries. Here is one thing they say about that:BTW, your comment that Ignatius was taught by the apostle John and that the apostle John wrote one of the gospels is pure speculation. Also, it is questionable that Ignatius wrote the longer version of the letter to the Trallians in which your chapter nine quote is contained.