Madist have told me repeatedly that Paul was the first in the B.O.C., which Paul says others were in Christ before him.
That's because "the Body of Christ" is only
part of those who are "in Christ." all of the "Body of Christ" are "in Christ," but not all of those who are "in Christ" are "the Body of Christ."
Madist have told me Paul preached a new message, which Galatians says Paul preached the same faith he once sought to destroy.
Paul establishes very quickly in Galatians that he and the twelve (the apostles) agreed after discussion that he and Barnabas should go to the Gentiles, and that they should go only to the circumcised (ie, the Jews, both those who were born Jews, and those who were proselyte):
But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter(for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles),and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7-9
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7-9&version=NKJV
Now, why is that? If it is as you say, and the messages are the same, why only send Paul to the world, and not the apostles also? In fact, weren't they given the command (by Jesus, no less) to go out into the world (ie, the Great Commission)?
And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “
All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” Amen. - Matthew 28:18-20
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew28:18-20&version=NKJV
As Apostles (as opposed to them being only disciples), they had the authority (given to them by Jesus) to determine who they should go to.
But again, why?
Because Paul's message is so different than the message the Apostles were preaching. Peter even says it's hard to understand.
and consider that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation—as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, has written to you,as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which untaught and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures. - 2 Peter 3:15-16
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2Peter3:15-16&version=NKJV
Paul even says:
But I make known to you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached by me is not according to man.For I neither received it from man, nor was I taught it, but it came through the revelation of Jesus Christ. - Galatians 1:11-12
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians1:11-12&version=NKJV
Yes, it is the same gospel, but a hidden part of it.
Israel is under the covenant of Law (Genesis 17), but the hidden portion, the part taught by Paul which was given to him by Jesus, is found in Genesis 15, two whole chapters before circumcision was required.
Let me try to explain it this way. (using Romans 1-5)
There are technically 4 groups of people described in the world. There's the Jews the ones who are under the law. This group includes proselytes and Jewish-born. There's the Christians, who are not under the law, but under grace. This group considers Jew and Gentile "equal" (for lack of a better term) to God, making the differences between them irrelevant. There's those whom we will call "the unsolicited," because they have never heard of God or His Word, the Bible, or the Gospel message (of any type (and I'll clarify why I say that in a moment, just keep reading)). And then there's the solicited, who have heard the Gospel, and have rejected it.
Throughout the Old Testament, the Nation of Israel (ie the Jews/Hebrews) are thoroughly shown to be under law. The first five books of the Bible are called "the Law" by the Jews. Their method of salvation is works based. They must keep the Law in order to go to heaven. In the New Testament, however, that changed, so that no longer is their salvation only works based, but is now works with faith added onto it. (Which is why GT and others, and I'm sure you too, dodge, teach "faith plus works" using scripture, which is biblically correct, but dispensationally incorrect. More on that later.)
Christians are not under law, they are under Grace. The only requirement for their salvation is faith. No works.
Now, the solicited and unsolicited, which go hand-in-hand with each other. Jesus alludes to these two groups in one of His parables.
And that servant who knew his master’s will, and did not prepare himself or do according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. But he who did not know, yet committed things deserving of stripes, shall be beaten with few. For everyone to whom much is given, from him much will be required; and to whom much has been committed, of him they will ask the more. - Luke 12:47-48
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke12:47-48&version=NKJV
Bolded is the reference to those who are "solicited."
Underlined is the reference to those who are "unsolicited."
In
italics is the guidelines for determining if one is righteous. Imagine a pagan man who, in all of his life, has never heard of God, the Bible, Israel, Christians, none of it. But he, in his long life, has come to realize that the gods he worships could not have created the world he lives in, nor could they have made him. He realizes that there must be some other Being that must exist that could have, that is powerful. This man is someone to whom little is given, so little will be required of him, basically that, since he has realized that God must exist, all he has to do is believe, and he will be saved. It's that simple. Sin is dead in him. He cannot be condemned for his sins, because there is no law to condemn him, only that he believes and loves God.
Now, say that man has been believing only in God, and a Jewish missionary finds him and shows him the Law, and the message of works based salvation, and YHWH, whom He already believed in. Two things could happen, 1) he could reject this new teaching, or 2) he could accept this new law, and place himself under it, and become a proselyte Jew.
If he rejects it, he is now condemned by it, having become one of the solicited, because he has been shown a method of salvation where before there was none. If he accepts it, he must keep it. He has now been given more, so more will be required of him. To the extent that he keeps the law, that is the extent he will be rewarded. If he lived prior to Christ's crucifixion (not Acts 9), then no faith is required, only works. If he lived after the crucifixion, but prior to Acts 9, faith is then added to works, so he must believe and keep the law (ie do good works). Again, more is given, so more is required.
Let's say he accepts it, and starts living his life under this new law, and some years later, a Christian missionary comes along, and shows him the message of salvation by faith alone.
Again, he can either accept or reject this new gospel. If he accepts it, then he is now redeemed, and will never lose his salvation, because Christ paid for all of his sins. No longer does he have to obey the law (not that he should be lawless), because he is no longer under the law, but under grace. While he may sin, he is no longer a sinner, because Christ is not a minister of sin (Galatians 2:17). Because Christ is in him, when God looks at him, He sees His Son, not the man.
However...
If this man, who is currently under the law, rejects the greatest gift of all, then he is now condemned to eternal separation from God, because he did not believe. To whom much is given, much will be required. He has been offered the greatest gift of all, and rejected it.
So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth; It shall not return to Me void, But it shall accomplish what I please, And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it. - Isaiah 55:11
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Isaiah55:11&version=NKJV
The gift has been given, and so the gift (to those whom it has been given (ie who are made aware of it)) is required for salvation.
Madist teach that repentance was for and to Israel. Jesus and Paul as all the Apostles taught repentance towards God.
See above.
Conclusion: MAD does not follow scripture but follow other confused and deceived men.
Dispensation is a word used in the Bible.
It comes from the greek word oikonomia. It's where we get our word "economy" from. It's made up of two other words, "oikos" (house) and "nomos" (law or rules). It literally means "house rules." If you go to a friend's house to play pool, and shoot the 8 ball into a pocket,, you'd say you won, but then your friend would tell you that you didn't, because the rule is that you have to call which pocket you'll shoot it into. You didn't know the economy, the house rules, for playing pool, and because of that, you lost.
MAD is simply a dispensation that underlines the cutting off of Israel and the grafting in of the Gentiles.
