The question applies equally to both creationist and Big Bang-er, as in either theory, there was a point before which humans did not exist.
If you are not a creationist, then yes, of course the things we now call the laws of physics were in effect before we discovered those principles and called them laws.
Good, Let me stop you there.
So if the laws already existed (even though "undefined by humans"), wouldn't that include the laws of logic?
Question, Stuu:
Can laws be created (and by that I mean arbitrarily brought into existence)? or are they only discovered?
Of course we have also discovered that Newton was not in a position to account for either quantum principles or relativity, so the laws have evolved.
Has 1+1 ever equalled 3? or 0? or any other number other than 2? (I just need a "yes, it has" or "no, 1+1 has always equalled 2.")
If you are a creationist, then the answer is different: How could you know? You weren't there to see.
So if you weren't around to see a murder happen, how could
you know it happened? You weren't there to see it happen.
See, I have a way out of this question. I have three Witnesses, the Creator God who created the Universe, to say what He did, in addition to the physical and even the non-physical evidence of the universe to back His account up.
You, on the other hand, cannot answer the question, "How could you know," because other than theories which can only attempt to explain physical and non-physical evidence, you have no eyewitness (let alone two or three) accounts to be supported with such theories and evidence.
So, to reiterate my questions from earlier in this post:
Can laws be created (and by that I mean arbitrarily brought into existence)? or are they only discovered? ("Yes, they can be created" or "No, they can only be discovered")
Has 1+1 ever equalled any other number other than 2? ("Yes, it has equalled something other than 2 in the past" or "no, 1+1 has always equalled 2.")