Hermeneutics: the art and science of Bible interpretation.
literal method= grammatical, historical, contextual, theological principles...
e.g. The book of Acts says that you and all your household will be saved... this is a specific historical promise...it was not meant to be generalized to a universal principle for all times...as evidenced by many Christians having unsaved loved ones who die outside of Christ.
There is one correct interpretation (what it meant to the original audience) and many applications by way of principle (what it means to us today).
Most commentaries would concur that the two verses in question are specific comments for the situation at hand. i.e. context is the key...
We can make a general application by way of principle to God's ways with men, but it becomes proof texting to use those verses to support a preconceived theological system (Calvinism). Those are not common verses to support Calvinism and are very specific to Jesus and Pharaoh in context.
The way God dealt with Moses, for example, is not the exact way He will deal in our lives (burning bush, etc...though He deals truthfully, is faithful, wise, loving, etc.)...Do not argue from the specific to the general (this is a common logical fallacy) unless the context mandates this (which it does not).
In other words, we need to look at all relevant verses and examples to formulate our beliefs. I would suggest there are 2 motifs in Scripture. God predestines some things (the Calvinistic verses would support this and I agree with them), but some things are genuinely open to our input (other verses that show uncertainty about the future or contingencies/conditional prophecy, etc.). The Open View takes all these verses at face value. Calvinism takes the predestination verses literally, while allegorizing the other ones.
Which is the better hermeneutic (both literal, or one set literal and the other set figurative where not warranted)?
literal method= grammatical, historical, contextual, theological principles...
e.g. The book of Acts says that you and all your household will be saved... this is a specific historical promise...it was not meant to be generalized to a universal principle for all times...as evidenced by many Christians having unsaved loved ones who die outside of Christ.
There is one correct interpretation (what it meant to the original audience) and many applications by way of principle (what it means to us today).
Most commentaries would concur that the two verses in question are specific comments for the situation at hand. i.e. context is the key...
We can make a general application by way of principle to God's ways with men, but it becomes proof texting to use those verses to support a preconceived theological system (Calvinism). Those are not common verses to support Calvinism and are very specific to Jesus and Pharaoh in context.
The way God dealt with Moses, for example, is not the exact way He will deal in our lives (burning bush, etc...though He deals truthfully, is faithful, wise, loving, etc.)...Do not argue from the specific to the general (this is a common logical fallacy) unless the context mandates this (which it does not).
In other words, we need to look at all relevant verses and examples to formulate our beliefs. I would suggest there are 2 motifs in Scripture. God predestines some things (the Calvinistic verses would support this and I agree with them), but some things are genuinely open to our input (other verses that show uncertainty about the future or contingencies/conditional prophecy, etc.). The Open View takes all these verses at face value. Calvinism takes the predestination verses literally, while allegorizing the other ones.
Which is the better hermeneutic (both literal, or one set literal and the other set figurative where not warranted)?