BRXII Battle talk

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logos_x

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PastorKevin said:
Once again you have failed to show a verse that gives any indication that the salvation of all is the Gospel. Nowhere in the Bible where the Gospel is referred to does it say that it means the salvation of all. You have repeatedly ignored Paul's definition of what the Gospel is when he clearly gives a definition for it and it has nothing to do with the salvation of all. But I guess it is easier to ignore something that refutes your position than to discuss it.




Wrong Paul is addressing Christians in the text, and that is the YOU he is referring to when he says it is by grace YOU have been saved THROUGH faith. Paul did not assert that faith is a result of grace, this is a gross misstatement. Faith is something that is the result of a choice. If I go to sit in a chair I am putting my faith in the chair to hold me up. I made the choice. God doesn't MAKE us choose Him no matter how much you try to say He does your assertions do not match up with Scripture.





The meaning of it by saying it says faith is a gift of God when it is salvation that is the gift. Paul is not saying in that text that faith is the gift of God and not of works so that no man can boast. That is why you have distorted the meaning. If faith is the gift of God mentioned in the text, then why does he also say it is not by works so that no man can boast?

In fact here is the verse in context and any rational person who is not looking to fit their own theologies into can understand exactly what the Apostle is saying:

1 And you He made alive, who were dead in trespasses and sins, 2 in which you once walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience, 3 among whom also we all once conducted ourselves in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the others.
4 But God, who is rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, 5 even when we were dead in trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), 6 and raised us up together, and made us sit together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, 7 that in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, 9 not of works, lest anyone should boast. 10 For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them.

By grace we are saved, Stephen. Not by works because works cannot save us. That is why we can assert very clearly that salvation is the gift of God that Paul is talking about here, the grace shown by God in granting us salvation! We are saved through faith and not through works. This is why I said you along with the Universalists have distorted what these verses say, and once again have pulled them out of context and tried to bend them to make them mean what you want them to mean.

By the way, you still have not shown a single verse that says that the salvation of all is the Gospel. Want to try again?



Actually this particular text doesn't talk about the punishment of the wicked, that is dealt with in other verses very plainly. It certainly doesn't say anything about the "salvation of all" being the Gospel. And while we ARE clearly given verses which indicate that unbelievers will be cast into the Lake of Fire with THAT EXACT WORDING, we are NOT given any verses that clearly state the salvation of all is the Gospel, which is what you have asserted and been trying for several pages to prove. You will never, EVER show a verse that says that the salvation of all is the Gospel, because no such verse exists in the Word of God.



I agree wholeheartedly with you that Paul was addressing the church in Ephesus and by extension all of the church. My point is what he says is directed to people who are saved (i.e. the church in Ephesus and by extension all of the church): By grace YOU have been saved. The YOU is Christians, not everyone who has ever lived or ever will live. So now you admit that Paul was addressing only believers in Jesus Christ right? So then why do you try to change the context to mean that God saves all?

Ephesians 2:8-9 again:

8 For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, 9 not of works, lest anyone should boast.






You misquoted Romans 12:3 out of context was my point, Stephen. Paul is again addressing BRETHREN in that text and telling them not to think more highly of themselves than they ought to. Nowhere in that text does it say that God will give faith to everyone who has ever lived.

Here are the verses again:

Romans 12:1-8
1 I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that you present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable to God, which is your reasonable service. 2 And do not be conformed to this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind, that you may prove what is that good and acceptable and perfect will of God. 3 For I say, through the grace given to me, to everyone who is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think, but to think soberly, as God has dealt to each one a measure of faith. 4 For as we have many members in one body, but all the members do not have the same function, 5 so we, being many, are one body in Christ, and individually members of one another. 6 Having then gifts differing according to the grace that is given to us, let us use them: if prophecy, let us prophesy in proportion to our faith; 7 or ministry, let us use it in our ministering; he who teaches, in teaching; 8 he who exhorts, in exhortation; he who gives, with liberality; he who leads, with diligence; he who shows mercy, with cheerfulness.

Clearly in the text he is talking about the fact that each person in the body has different gifts and abilities given by God.

Stephen, Please show where in the text in Romans 12:3 it indicates that God has given or will give faith to everyone who has ever lived or ever will live? That is exactly what you were trying to assert when you quoted it the first time!



no. I'll let you say that. You are the one twisting yourself into theological mumbo jumbo man!



What is true is that Universalists have pulled certain verses out of context and tried to make them mean things that they do not mean. That is why you are having a difficult time of making sense of some of them!





No. It was that dealing that gave them spiritual gifts in the context of the text. Read it again and if you are not being completely close-minded you will see that is true. God dealt each of the BRETHREN a spiritual gift is what that text is talking about when you break it down and look at it. I mean LOOK AT VERSE #4!!!

"For as we have many members in one body, but all the members do not have the same function,"

It makes perfect sense when you put that statement in context with the fact that God has given each of the brethren a MEASURE of faith! Why do you think the word measure was thrown in there? To show the differences in the gifts!

Some Christians have a deeper faith than others. I know people who have completely abandoned everything they owned and went halfway around the world to preach the Gospel, trusting in God for their every need to be met. THAT is a different kind of faith than many Christians have. Each of the BRETHREN is called to exercise their spiritual gifts according to the MEASURE of faith that has been given to them by the Lord.


Kevin This "chicken and egg" argument really has me mystified.

We can talk about what we believe produces faith in people, and we can talk about when we think people have a saving faith, and what it takes to be a Christian, and how many people actually get eternal life with God in the end and you will get several different answers from just about as many people...all of whom are Christians. That is why we have so many denominations of Christianity, I guess.

I don't believe it is impossible for God to save all men. I believe that it is of highest probability that God knows how to do it, by using His Grace as well as His judgments.

Because of this you want to prove just how impossible it actually is, and want to prove that the majority of mankind ends up in literal flames for all eternity...and will not accept any refutation of that plausibility structure.

I've done the best I think I can at this point. We apparently aren't going to convince each other of much on this topic.
 

Nineveh

Merely Christian
logos_x said:
Why not?

EDIT: Apparently you want to narrow it down to one defintion, I suppose. Well, no, not just on definition 2a. I base it on all of those definitions.

Me? You are the one opting for a strict definition 2a. None of the others express any emotional appeal. to confess, to profess, to one’s honour: to celebrate, give praise to, to profess that one will do something, to promise, agree, engage. That leaves you with just 2a to hold on to.

By the way could you please answer this:

What does one die to in the first death?
What does one die to in the second death?
 

logos_x

New member
Nineveh said:
Me? You are the one opting for a strict definition 2a. None of the others express any emotional appeal. to confess, to profess, to one’s honour: to celebrate, give praise to, to profess that one will do something, to promise, agree, engage. That leaves you with just 2a to hold on to.

I don't know what you mean. What are they confessing...crimes? I beleive the confession is that Jesus is Lord, and that confession is to the Glory of God the father.

Seems to me that is what the scripture says.

By the way could you please answer this:

What does one die to in the first death?
What does one die to in the second death?

I have, twice.

So, now you answer me a few questions.
When people are thrown in the second death...DO they die to anything?

Seems to me...in the eternal torment senario...they don't die to anything at all. They go on and on and on, something like the energizer bunny, and NEVER die. Maybe the serpent in Eden was right after all?

The second question is....when is death abolished completely?

Seems to me that in the eternal torment senario it NEVER is...but goes on, and on, and on...

And the third question is....what the Hell happened to the resurrection?

Seems to me that the resurrection, in the eternal torment scenario, becomes a huge curse for the vast majority of people.

I know what your answers are probably going to be. But while you are answering I want you to consider that IF the eternal torment model is true then the answer to these questions are not good news at all, in fact it is incredibly grim. And this is ONLY if eternal torment (or to a lesser degree annihilation) is true.

Might want to reconsider the veracity of that doctrine if you really want answers.
 

Aimiel

Well-known member
logos_x said:
Maybe the serpent in Eden was right after all?
So now, after all, you finally admit that your doctrine agrees with that of the devil, "You shall not surely die." Well, I must say, I never thought I'd see the day. It is a good day, in the land of truth and reality. A good day. Thanks for your honesty, as last. :thumb:
 

red77

New member
Aimiel said:
So now, after all, you finally admit that your doctrine agrees with that of the devil, "You shall not surely die." Well, I must say, I never thought I'd see the day. It is a good day, in the land of truth and reality. A good day. Thanks for your honesty, as last. :thumb:

All I can say is you're very easily pleased - as well as deluded.....
 

logos_x

New member
Aimiel said:
So now, after all, you finally admit that your doctrine agrees with that of the devil, "You shall not surely die." Well, I must say, I never thought I'd see the day. It is a good day, in the land of truth and reality. A good day. Thanks for your honesty, as last. :thumb:

Read it agian Aim
I said that the doctrine of eternal torment assumes that "you shall not surely die".

And the day you wake up to that realization will be a very good day indeed!

Now...I believe everyone, human at least...dies.

But I also believe in the resurrection...which undoes it and will overcome death.

Thank you for playing. :wave2:
 

Nineveh

Merely Christian
logos_x said:
I don't know what you mean. What are they confessing...crimes? I beleive the confession is that Jesus is Lord, and that confession is to the Glory of God the father.

They are confessing He is God the Utlimate Authority. "Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." At that point, no one will be able to rely on their lame excuses. Either they have Christ's Righteousness or their own. Anyway, to take "confession" to mean "joy" is a leap.

Seems to me that is what the scripture says.

Confess as in "bend a knee" yes. "Joy"? Nope. You needed to add that.

I have, twice.

So, now you answer me a few questions.
When people are thrown in the second death...DO they die to anything?

Seems to me...in the eternal torment senario...they don't die to anything at all. They go on and on and on, something like the energizer bunny, and NEVER die. Maybe the serpent in Eden was right after all?

The second question is....when is death abolished completely?

Seems to me that in the eternal torment senario it NEVER is...but goes on, and on, and on...

And the third question is....what the Hell happened to the resurrection?

Seems to me that the resurrection, in the eternal torment scenario, becomes a huge curse for the vast majority of people.

I know what your answers are probably going to be. But while you are answering I want you to consider that IF the eternal torment model is true then the answer to these questions are not good news at all, in fact it is incredibly grim. And this is ONLY if eternal torment (or to a lesser degree annihilation) is true.

Might want to reconsider the veracity of that doctrine if you really want answers.

Ok, after you take a breath from your sermon, would you bother to actually answer these two simple questions? Fourth time's a charm:

What does one die to in the first death?
What does one die to in the second death?

If it makes it any easier for you answer them one at a time.
 

logos_x

New member
Nineveh said:
They are confessing He is God the Utlimate Authority. "Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." At that point, no one will be able to rely on their lame excuses. Either they have Christ's Righteousness or their own. Anyway, to take "confession" to mean "joy" is a leap.

Is it, really?

Confess as in "bend a knee" yes. "Joy"? Nope. You needed to add that.

Nope...didn't add nothin'



Ok, after you take a breath from your sermon, would you bother to actually answer these two simple questions? Fourth time's a charm:

What does one die to in the first death?
What does one die to in the second death?

If it makes it any easier for you answer them one at a time.

What does one die to in the first death?
Answer: They are dead. They are not alive. Dead to everything.

What does one die to in the second death?
Answer: They are dead. They are not alive. Dead to everything.
 

Nineveh

Merely Christian
logos_x said:
Is it, really?

When you need to pick one of what...7? definitions to hold your theology together? Yes.

Nope...didn't add nothin'

Offer the verse in context.

What does one die to in the first death?
Answer: They are dead. They are not alive. Dead to everything.

It appears their spirits are not dead. Are you sure?

What does one die to in the second death?
Answer: They are dead. They are not alive. Dead to everything.

But it appears our spirits live on. Surely you don't believe this, or what would be the point of putting up such a vehement fight about getting "dead to everything" people of the lake?

At least show me the courtesy of really attempting to answer these two questions.
 

Aimiel

Well-known member
logos_x said:
Read it agian Aim
I said that the doctrine of eternal torment assumes that "you shall not surely die".

And the day you wake up to that realization will be a very good day indeed!

Now...I believe everyone, human at least...dies.

But I also believe in the resurrection...which undoes it and will overcome death.

Thank you for playing. :wave2:
Log, you're a moron. Your false doctrine is the same old lie, "You shall not surely die," re-packaged, and applied to the second death. Please grow a clue. You're the one who's been lulled to sleep by reading false doctrine, from other morons. You're the one who believes the lie, not Christians. :duh:
 

red77

New member
Aimiel said:
Log, you're a moron. Your false doctrine is the same old lie, "You shall not surely die," re-packaged, and applied to the second death. Please grow a clue. You're the one who's been lulled to sleep by reading false doctrine, from other morons. You're the one who believes the lie, not Christians. :duh:

Wow, the depth of your argument has degenerated to the 'ole faithful' moron ad hom.........how sad........
 

PKevman

New member
logos_x said:
I've done the best I think I can at this point. We apparently aren't going to convince each other of much on this topic.

Not if you won't respond to my points point by point like I did yours.
 

PKevman

New member
Stephen:

We are still awaiting the verse or verses that say that THE GOSPEL is "the salvation of all". There is only one Gospel, and nowhere in Scripture does it say that the Gospel is the salvation of all. Until you can provided the verse that clearly shows this assertion of yours to be true then what have you proven? Nothing Biblically that is for sure. The best you could come up with is quoting some verses that you said you BELIEVE teaches that the salvation of all is the Gospel. But you haven't actually shown any verses that SAY that, even though Paul gives a very clear definition of what THE GOSPEL is.

Romans 15:1-4

1 Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received and in which you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast that word which I preached to you—unless you believed in vain.
3 For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures,


According to you THE GOSPEL is "the salvation of all".

According to you anyone who rejects the doctrine of the salvation of all is rejecting the Gospel. Yet Paul doesn't give the salvation of all as a definition of the Gospel not ONCE when he speaks about it. Why is that? Because the salvation of all is NOT the Gospel.
 

PKevman

New member
Paul's defintion of the Gospel:

"Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, He was buried, and He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures."

Universalism's definition of the Gospel:

"The Gospel is the salvation of all."

And you wonder why we say your doctrines are unBiblical!
 

PKevman

New member
logos_x said:
the salvation of all is the Gospel

logos_x said:
by rejecting the salvation of all you have rejected the Gospel.

Since the Bible says it is by the Gospel we have been saved, Universalism is saying that we who reject the salvation of all as a doctrine are NOT saved.
 

red77

New member
PastorKevin said:
Paul's defintion of the Gospel:

"Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, He was buried, and He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures."

Universalism's definition of the Gospel:

"The Gospel is the salvation of all."

And you wonder why we say your doctrines are unBiblical!

Christ died for ALL, true? He died as propiation for the sins of the whole world true? Is Christs's sacrifice limited to the actions and inactions of men?
 

Ecumenicist

New member
PastorKevin said:
Stephen:

We are still awaiting the verse or verses that say that THE GOSPEL is "the salvation of all". There is only one Gospel, and nowhere in Scripture does it say that the Gospel is the salvation of all. Until you can provided the verse that clearly shows this assertion of yours to be true then what have you proven? Nothing Biblically that is for sure. The best you could come up with is quoting some verses that you said you BELIEVE teaches that the salvation of all is the Gospel. But you haven't actually shown any verses that SAY that, even though Paul gives a very clear definition of what THE GOSPEL is.

Romans 15:1-4

1 Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received and in which you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast that word which I preached to you—unless you believed in vain.
3 For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures,


According to you THE GOSPEL is "the salvation of all".

According to you anyone who rejects the doctrine of the salvation of all is rejecting the Gospel. Yet Paul doesn't give the salvation of all as a definition of the Gospel not ONCE when he speaks about it. Why is that? Because the salvation of all is NOT the Gospel.

The Gospel is the Word
Christ is the Word
Christ is the Gospel
Christ restores "all things"

QED
 

logos_x

New member
PastorKevin said:
Stephen:

We are still awaiting the verse or verses that say that THE GOSPEL is "the salvation of all". There is only one Gospel, and nowhere in Scripture does it say that the Gospel is the salvation of all. Until you can provided the verse that clearly shows this assertion of yours to be true then what have you proven? Nothing Biblically that is for sure. The best you could come up with is quoting some verses that you said you BELIEVE teaches that the salvation of all is the Gospel. But you haven't actually shown any verses that SAY that, even though Paul gives a very clear definition of what THE GOSPEL is.

Romans 15:1-4

1 Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received and in which you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast that word which I preached to you—unless you believed in vain.
3 For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures,


According to you THE GOSPEL is "the salvation of all".

According to you anyone who rejects the doctrine of the salvation of all is rejecting the Gospel. Yet Paul doesn't give the salvation of all as a definition of the Gospel not ONCE when he speaks about it. Why is that? Because the salvation of all is NOT the Gospel.

Kevin, how can you say that the Gospel is not the salvation of all?
Where does the above passage say that the salvation of all is impossible?

I want you to consider something.

Read the following scripture passage...also from Romans:

For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fullness of the Gentiles be come in.

And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Zion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.

As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes. For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.

For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief: Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy.

For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.

O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out! For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counselor? Or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? For of him, and through him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory forever. Amen.
(Rom 11:25-36 KJVR)​

You really do need to consider that when you say the word "Gospel", that embodies a great many things.

Now...to clarify something.

I don't believe any Christian here has rejected the entire gospel. Many aspects and facets of our salvation depends on revelation of things we don't know or understand.

In other words, once someone accepts Christ, turning toward Him for the remission of sin...they are saved. This does not mean that they suddenly know all there is about who they are in Christ at that moment, nor all of God's plans for the future.

Now...there are many ideas about all kinds of things concerning just about everything as related to the Gospel.

Did you know, for example, that all Israel will be saved...as Paul reveals in the passage I quoted. I didn't until just acouple of years ago. Yet there it is. Is it Gospel? You bet it is.

So...how many scriptures are related to the "gospel"?

You appear to be looking for a definition of the Gospel provided by scripture that includes the salvation of all as though what is required is the word "gospel" with the mention of everything being in Christ in the end...well, it doesn't work like that. I've provided many scriptures. But let me provide one more...

For if, through the transgression of the one individual, Death made use of the one individual to seize the sovereignty, all the more shall those who receive God's overflowing grace and gift of righteousness reign as kings in Life through the one individual, Jesus Christ.

It follows then that just as the result of a single transgression is a condemnation which extends to the whole race, so also the result of a single decree of righteousness is a life-giving acquittal which extends to the whole race.

For as through the disobedience of the one individual the mass of mankind were constituted sinners, so also through the obedience of the One the mass of mankind will be constituted righteous.

Now Law was brought in later on, so that transgression might increase. But where sin increased, grace has overflowed; in order that as sin has exercised kingly sway in inflicting death, so grace, too, may exercise kingly sway in bestowing a righteousness which results in the Life of the Ages through Jesus Christ our Lord.
(Rom 5:17-21 WNT)​

Christ is not just the beginning, Kevin. He is also the end.
The work of the cross and the resurrection far exceeds the sin of Adam...and just as the transgression of Adam caused death for all his descendants, so Grace will work...for all his descendants.
 
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