If God's will was to have his own Son crucified, what makes you think that sinful human beings are not worthy of a similar, if not worse, demise?
I am going to pick on your CV pressuposition, and the issue of punishment for sins.
1. Lets say God "foreknows" the future and things are eternally set in stone according to his knowledge.
2. Person "X" is a sinner.
3. Person "X" becomes a Christian and is forgiven of his sins.
4. According to scripture (Romans 3:23) the wages of sin is death, so therefore this person deserves (eternal) death as justice and retributive punishment for the sins committed, however, since being forgiven this no longer applies.
5. According to God's foreknowledge, Person "X", eternally speaking was always and is always forgiven.
6. Thus Person "X" could never have recieved the due punishment since Person "X" was always forgiven.
7. Therefore Person "X" never deserved the due punishment since before the foundations of time he was forgiven (since it does not matter with foreknowledge what the "current" status of the person is but the end result and since God is eternal and his "foreknowledge" is Person "X" would be eternally free of sin).
Pending that my arguments were logical, does that sound scriptural to you? Because of God's foreknowledge you werent ever a "sinner" because you were always forgiven. That isnt scriptural at all. Its because of God's grace you are
no longer a sinner. Its because God
changed his mind about our deserved punishment and showed us mercy we may have eternal life. Once again if my reasoning is flawed, dont harp on me too much i am just messing around here with some arguments against CV.
Also here is another argument i thought of against CV (Btw, i am still on the fence about this whole issue).
1. Suppose that God has exhaustive foreknowledge of all things
2. Person "X" was preconcieved by God, and created by God. Person "X" is a human being according to typical definitions of that which is human..
3. God would have known Person "X" before Person "X" were born.
4. God would have always known Person "X" since God is eternal.
5. Person "X" would be an eternal being then since God would have known Person "X" as the preconcieved Person "X", the present living animate Person "X", and the eternal Person "X" (via heaven or hell).
6. There would be no timeline to place Person "X" on since the preconcieved Person "X", the present living animate Person "X", and the future eternal Person "X" would be as old as God.
7. Person "X" would exist simultaneously in the past, present and future to God and therefore Person "X" is either in heaven now or burning in hell right this moment.
If all these points are axioms and therefore true, then why doesnt God address us as the future us? And even if God would, he would have already done so since the future is closed. But can the future be closed for God if he is eternal? For eternal would imply that the future of God was "never ending" in a manner that supplies the notion of "yet to be complete". If the future was never ending or yet to be complete how would God know it since it hasnt existed yet for God? Does God know all of infinity or is he infinte?
ok thats my main problems with foreknowledge of God. How do you CV deal with it? And if i am illogical in my arguments please point it out for my own better understanding.