SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
It's the same proof. If you change 'T' to be what you've proposed, the proof is still valid.
Muz
The result is the same, I will perform T. But, choice is not eliminated since
God knew I would choose T.
It's the same proof. If you change 'T' to be what you've proposed, the proof is still valid.
Muz
The result is the same, I will perform T. But, choice is not eliminated since
God knew I would choose T.
No, the conclusion (given your substitution) is that, because of necessity, you did not freely choose T. The syllogism works either way.
(Yes, you choose it, but not freely.)
(1) Yesterday God infallibly believed T. [Supposition of infallible foreknowledge]
(2) If E occurred in the past, it is now-necessary that E occurred then. [Principle of the Necessity of the Past]
(3) It is now-necessary that yesterday God believed T. [1, 2]
(4) Necessarily, if yesterday God believed T, then T. [Definition of “infallibility”]
(5) If p is now-necessary, and necessarily (p → q), then q is now-necessary. [Transfer of Necessity Principle]
(6) So it is now-necessary that T. [3,4,5]
(7) If it is now-necessary that T, then you cannot do otherwise than choose to answer the telephone tomorrow at 9 am. [Definition of “necessary”]
(8) Therefore, you cannot choose to do otherwise than answer the telephone tomorrow at 9 am. [6, 7]
(9) If you cannot choose to do otherwise when you do an act, you do not act freely. [Principle of Alternate Possibilities]
(10) Therefore, when you choose to answer the telephone tomorrow at 9 am, you will not do it freely. [8, 9]
Muz
So, the premise is that God knew I would choose T.
But yet, when I do finally choose T, I didnt choose it?
So, the premise is that God knew I would freely choose T.
But yet, when I do finally freely choose T, I didnt freely choose it?
No. The proof demonstrates that, if your choice is foreknown, then you cannot freely choose it.
Muz
Well, we'll just have to differ.
If the premise is based on freely choosing, the result of making the choice
does not eliminate the freedom.
Well, Paul mentions Gentiles in Romans 11, in clear contrast to the remnant from Israel, these are separate groups.Lee, we are the remnant. We are Israel's way back, Israel's hope.
Seems "a remnant will be saved" is talking about a relative number of people.The "remnant" is not a prophecy of the number of people to be saved.
I agree.By all, Paul is not referring to every Jew past present and future, but all as in "all those present at that time."
Right, salvation is by God's decision, as to who is saved and who is not.How can he accomplish this? Because he is LORD.
But this doesn't get you out of the dilemma you've put yourself into.The assumption here is that you are free to do. In this case what 'will be' is brought about and equivalent to your 'will'. Perhaps the problems aren't all mine.
Simply put, when speaking of a free choice what you 'will to do' and what you 'will do' are the same.
But you step right back into the logical contradiction. It doesn't matter if God has the original or the copy. If He has the state of your palms before you do, and the information is exhaustive, it's the same as seeing a tape of the past for God. If you see a tape of something, there is nothing stopping you, all things being equal, from saying what is happening on the tape. To know but not be able to say makes God a not-the-real-God because something is stopping God from saying while knowing, something more powerful than God. Figure out what that is and you have your REAL God RobE.What I'm saying is that God's chosen script(or decree) for you is based upon the script you freely choose. God knows what you will choose before you know what you will choose.
The assertion - "then our script is merely a copy" - is unfounded. Our script is the original. God did not choose for you to sin, or do right; you did. God merely allows you at times to do as you choose.
What God knows about the future is either through His plans or through calculation. There are some things God cannot calculate and they would be some things based on future freewill contingencies. The kitchen table scenario proves this, and so far you've only supported that proof.Does God know before your act because God exists atemporally or is it done through calculation?
It can only not be done with exhaustive foreknowledge. But you can do the test. Try it with your wife.No. You mis-interpret the findings. The test doesn't present the argument in a valid way. Prove the validity of your test. Perhaps with a syllogism.
The test is not something which can be done.
What does this mean? It is saying that God's knowledge is your choice. Now, God might have knowledge of a choice, but that knowledge couldn't be the choice itself, UNLESS, God's knowledge is all that exists and choices don't exist. But that is what you are saying here. Can you explain this or are you going to let this statement stand in opposition to your position that man has will?1. God foreknows = your choice.
You obviously don't understand it.2. Your choice = to do the opposite of what God foreknows.
One of the two are false. This is your point as I have understood it.
If you really want to say that what God knows IS your choice (the definition of "God's knowledge = your choice"), then you are saying choices do not exist, but only God's knowledge exists. Then, by your definition, man does not have will. That will answer the test. Do you want your answer to stand? Or do you want to change your answer?The falsehood is that in 2. "You will choose to do the opposite of 1. "your choice"
1. Your choice = what God foreknows
2. Your choice = ~(what God foreknows)
Summary: 3. Your choice <> your choice.
The error is in choosing to do the opposite of what God foreknows. It's impossible that you will choose the opposite of your choice. However, the question is not whether you 'will' choose, but whether you 'can' choose the opposite. Your 'test' does nothing to prove the latter. If it did you might have something.
The test is invalid so what does it prove and how does it prove it? Lay it out step-by-step.
So you don't agree that a computer program is creation + foreknowledge?Certainly--and this does not answer the question.
Sure He can. As long as humans don't have will.I still believe God can get my hands palms up on the table, and if he says they will be that way, indeed they will.
"Oh, but it's deserved"... sometimes it's true. And it's true when someone says that a computer program isn't creation + foreknowledge.Do people generally insult someone when they think it's inaccurate? So saying "Oh, but it's deserved," well, basically everyone giving insults says that.
If I ever trust your ability to interpret scripture is the only time I'll be in danger of hellfire.There are real fools--however, to call a Christian brother a fool puts a person in danger of the fire of hell.
Matthew 5:22 But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca' [a term of contempt - think 'idiot' here] is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.
There is a choice, it's just foreknown.
To say "cannot do otherwise" is like saying that if God knows I will answer the phone at 9 that a mysterious force will drag me out of my lazyboy and force my hand to pick up the receiver.
I'm sorry, I forgot what this point of discussion was about.So you don't agree that a computer program is creation + foreknowledge?
Just because I can make you blink by popping a balloon behind you doesn't mean you have no free will--one action I cause doesn't mean no free will at any time.Sure He can. As long as humans don't have will.
But this is very plain, what do you think Jesus meant about calling people terms such as airheads (a rather literal English counterpart of "raca") or fools?If I ever trust your ability to interpret scripture is the only time I'll be in danger of hellfire.
A choice cannot be certain and contingent at the same time. God knows reality as it is. He knows choices as contingent or certain (law of non-contradiction; you have flawed logic).
Certain from God's perspective and contingent from mine.
Thanks for the compliments.
Well, Paul mentions Gentiles in Romans 11, in clear contrast to the remnant from Israel, these are separate groups.
Seems "a remnant will be saved" is talking about a relative number of people.
I agree.
Right, salvation is by God's decision, as to who is saved and who is not.
But I don't think the Open View will be glad to hear this, just ask Godrulz!
Romans 9:28 "For the Lord will carry out his sentence on earth with speed and finality."
Blessings,
Lee <- Thinks he's the bee, and OVT, the bonnet
What you forget is the big picture. Unlike Joe, God would know about the truck or anything else which would occur before making a decision. Complete knowledge is much different than a man's belief about what might occur. God is just a little more intelligent than Joe according to open theism. I hold to the idea that God is infinitely more intelligent than man, so what a man is able to do in a limited way - God is able to do in an infinite manner.
Blessed Easter and see you in a couple of days.
Your Friend,
Rob Mauldin
Certain from God's perspective and contingent from mine.
Thanks for the compliments.
STP I am truly disappointed in this sort of intellectual dishonesty coming from you.
You're simply choosing not to be convinced for no reason. I don't get it. I mean look, if you're comfortable with this sort of intentionally irrational mind set concerning EDF vs. Free Will then why bother with arguing the way you do for Dispensationalism? How do you justify the inconsistency? How would you respond to Godrulz if (and when) he pulls the same sort of "don't bother me with the facts" mentality that you've displayed here?
You started so well too! The question you asked about whether it would be valid to change it from "cannot" to "will not" was a totally valid question! Why have you ignored my response and simply chosen to insist on changing it anyway? It doesn't work, STP. Changing it is irrational. You might like the way it sounds better because your more comfortable with the conclusion but that isn't what makes an argument valid and you know it.
You're lucky I'm a dispensationalist otherwise I'd clobber every argument you made on that subject to death with the very same form of argument you've presented here and then when you objected, I'd simply show the world how you contradict your own standards.
Resting in Him,
Clete
You honestly fail to grasp even the basics of this issue. You are saying the choices are made and settled before they are made. This makes no sense. It would make sense if God was making the choices ultimately, but this would negate human will.