That's an understandable mistake. The Bible sometimes says things that are not true,
False.
Everything the Bible says is true.
for example, snakes do not talk.
Snakes do indeed not talk.
However, the "serpent" in Genesis 3 is a portrayal of Satan, who CAN talk.
The "serpent" did talk, because Genesis 3 is portraying Satan as a serpent. It was Satan who was talking, not some random snake.
The text does say the snake talked.
Thank you for conceding the discussion.
Because Satan, the serpent, talked.
Because Eve thought it talked.
She thought it talked because it did, in fact talk, because the serpent, also known as Satan, was in fact talking.
Because Satan tricked her into thinking it talked.
Wrong. Satan IS the serpent.
And because Satan IS the serpent, and Satan, as you admit below, was in fact talking, therefore Satan "the serpent" was in fact talking.
Correct.
using the snake as a sort of puppet.
What evidence do you have that the serpent in Genesis 3 is anything other than Satan?
The same with Balaam's ass.
Balaam's donkey was in fact talking, because God caused the donkey to be able to talk miraculously.
The Bible is rather explicit on that part.
It appears that Samuel's "spirit" is summoned by the witch of En-dor;
Well, no, Samuel did, in fact, appear before the witch.
He didn't just "appear to be summoned." He actually showed up. Whether it was the witch who summoned Him, or it was God having a laugh on His part by bringing him up from the lower parts of the earth, is debatable, but there should be no question that it was, in fact, Samuel, appearing in that tent before the witch.
the cowardly scouts sent out came back and said the Nephilim were in the land. Both untrue.
Saying it doesn't make it so.
And ESPECIALLY in this case, you would be wrong.
Nephilim did in fact exist, in that land. Goliath was one such Nephilim.
See
https://kgov.com/giants-and-the-bible and the follow-up shows at */giants-2 and */giants-3.
Sometimes the Bible even gives details of earlier events using references that didn't exist at that time.
Yes, that's because the Bible was written AFTER the events transpired, and using familiar terms helps readers of the books understand the context.
Just like New York City wasn't called "New York City" until a while after it's founding in 1624 as "New Amsterdam," yet if you were to google "when was new york city founded," it would give you a date of 1624, despite it not being called "New York City" until decades after that in 1664.
For example, at Genesis 3:24 the cherubs use a flaming blade of a sword to prevent Adam and Eve from returning. No such thing (sword) existed.
Denying scripture is unhealthy, DLH.
The cherub had a sword of flame.
It's the first instance of an actual sword in the Bible. Yes, swords wouldn't be made by men until later, but a sword is a sword.
At Genesis 2:10-14 the geographical details of Eden are given with reference to one river "to the East of Assyria" when Assyria certainly didn't exist then. But it was familiar to the reader who was reading it much later.
My point exactly. It doesn't mean that the river didn't exist, though.
This is why you have to know the entire Bible before you start hacking at it like a blind woodsman.
Maybe you should take a leaf out of your own book?
The Bible seems to say that the heavens and earth were created in 6 days,
It doesn't just "seem to." It actually does say that.
Denying what scripture says is unhealthy.
It says that the heavens and earth were created and then there were six periods of time where it was being prepared for habitation.
And those six periods of time were literal days, and the Bible calls them such in multiple places.
That's the complicated argument I've presented which hasn't been successfully refuted.
It has been. But you've been avoiding responding to the points made with actual arguments.
But since no one is going to seriously tackle that what someone needs to do is address what exactly a day is.
See my first response to you, where I provide the definition of "day."
Does the Bible present the Hebrew word yohm as strictly applying to a literal 24 hours and does the English term day do the same. The answer I've demonstrated is no.
No one has said that "yom" ONLY means "a period of time from sunrise to sunrise" or similar.
What I SPECIFICALLY have said is that the meaning is determined by the context, which so far you have ignored.
The CONTEXT of Genesis 1 determines the meaning of "yom" in Genesis 1 as being "a period of time from morning to morning, a literal day." The CONTEXT does not allow for anything other than that definition to be used IN GENESIS 1. NOT the rest of the Bible.
Repeating that it does isn't an argument.
The reason we are repeating our arguments is due to the fact that you have yet to address them directly.
Supporting it with scripture isn't even an argument until you establish that they only apply to a literal 24 hours. You can't. Because they don't.
Again, straw man.
That's actually a very good point. I've never heard that before, and that doesn't happen often,
Thank you for being honest.
but it still does nothing to make the point. The point being made, I believe, is that the morning and the evening allegedly constitute a literal day.
No, that's not the point being made.
The point being made (at least by what I was saying) is that evening and morning are describing the end of the day and the start of a new one, just like any average human being would understand.
They don't. What you seem to be saying is closer to the morning and evening being metaphorical applications as I mentioned above. Somewhere.
If you want to insist that "evening and morning" is metaphorical, then the onus is on you to tell us what it is a metaphor for.
Because I'm saying the verse, when it says, "and there was evening, and there was morning, the first day," that that means that the earth had finished it's very first rotation, and was at the start of the next rotation, and that the only reason to insist that it means something other than that is due to an
a priori belief that God did not create in 6 literal days.
Not necessarily. They are listed that way probably because that is the order they were created, which certainly makes more sense. But there are a spiritual heavens and a physical heavens.
So what? The verse says, "God made the heavens and the earth."
Not at all. But the Bible distinguishes between a spiritual heavens and a physical heavens.
So what? In Genesis 1:1, it does not.
Both were created through the master worker (Michael/Jesus).
Michael is not Jesus. Jesus is not Michael.
You WILL get pinged for blasphemy on this board if you continue to assert that. This is a mainline Christian board.
In the beginning is only the beginning of the creation from the topical perspective of mankind. The physical heavens.
Saying it doesn't make it so.
Prove it.
When was Jesus born? When did he become the official messiah? BC and AD come from the Easter table.
Again, "B.C." stands for "Before Christ." "A.D." stands for "Anno Domini," which is latin for "In the Year of Our Lord."
It's as simple as that.
In the alluvial plains near the ancient city Ur, about the time of Abraham, the worshippers of Astarte, the fertility goddess, dressed select children in their finest and set fire to them. Sacrificing them to fire for the goddess. Then they colored eggs, made bread in the shape of a cross, a phallic symbol of fertility of Astarte that originated with the god Tammuz mentioned in the 8th chapter of Ezekiel. Tammuz was the Sumerian King Dumuzi. Nimrod. His symbol was the filthy idol, as the Bible calls it. We know it as the cross. The cross, hot cross buns, rabbit and eggs. Found painted on ancient earns with the charred remains of children inside. Easter. I'm not impressed.
Irrelevant to the discussion.
Why do I prefer BCE and CE? Because Jesus was probably born in October of 2 CE and not baptized until 29 CE. The terms BC and AD have more to do with the shoot of Tammuz than Christ.
Again, there is no such thing as the "Common Era."
It's a term made up by atheists to try to avoid referencing Christ.
And again, "B.C." stands for "Before Christ." "A.D." stands for "Anno Domini," which is latin for "In the Year of Our Lord."
It has nothing to do with whatever it is you're talking about.
I wish I had time to comb through all of those links. Your own explanation is insufficient to say the least.
I didn't have enough time to go into detail. I gave those links to you because they are, for the most part, relatively easy to go through.
From my understanding you are suggesting that Adam was created 7,600 years and six days ago?
7500 years ago, give or take 100 years, based on the orbits of clocklike comets and Biblical geneologies.
If you have a problem with what I say, then make the argument against it.
Explain the logic underlying that conclusion, please?
Supra.
Then why couldn't God have created angels after creating the heavens?
Actually, I would leave it out because it isn't applicable,
It is completely applicable.
you can't take it beyond the point in which the law of thermodynamics could have been established.
Remember, the point I was making was that with all the laws established, now He can MAKE something out of the matter and energy He had created.
Completed, in that God had finished creating something from nothing. No?
There was only God, and then God created, and then there was God and what He created, the universe and matter.
The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but that energy can be converted to and from matter, and that the amount of energy and matter in the universe remains constant, merely changing from one form to the other.
This would have been established the moment God created the universe. All the laws established, now He can MAKE something out of that matter and energy.
The Law of Thermodynamics was established when? You can't explain mechanical flight until you have it. Science scoffed at it some time after man was in the sky.
It sounds to me like you are trying to incorporate the science of men into the word of God which would be fine if you were to establish they were compatible. There is a giant chasm in your attempt as far as I can tell.
I'm not talking about when the law was discovered, DLH. I'm talking about when the law was established. It was established at creation, at the latest.
And now you're calling into question the first law of thermodynamics.
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You can say energy can't be created,
It cannot be brought into existence without a supernatural Cause.
like a power plant would,
Power plants don't create energy. They turn potential energy into usable energy.
but you can't say that a.) Jehovah, the creator of the universe, didn't create energy in the first place,
I'm saying that God created matter AND energy in the first place. And then since he had matter and energy to work with (the "completed action" you made reference to), He then MADE something with that matter and energy, which was an ongoing process over the next 6 days.
and [you can't say that] b.) it can be stated with any degree of certainty that the Bible was dependent or not upon such a law in the first place. The point is moot.
Saying it doesn't make it so.
The point was that God had completed creating the universe and the matter within it, and that includes the laws that govern the universe (which include, as we call it, "the first law of thermodynamics." With that being completed, He could then "MAKE" something with the materials he had.
What you're doing there is ignoring everything I've already repeatedly said on the subject
Repeating your arguments doesn't make them correct. That would be a argument from repetition.
expecting me to obliterate your world view.
What we expect is for you to make the argument as to why you think when the Bible says something, it doesn't mean what exactly what it says, being either figurative or literal.