Ardima
New member
You need to learn how to read, I mean actually read. There is much more to reading than just knowing what the words are. I explained it to you clearly more than once. If you cannot understand what was actually being said based on context and grammar you might as well throw in the towel or go back to high school and take an English class.
It would have been much easier though if you would have simply relinquished your false understanding of what Yeshua was saying to begin with because if he is claiming to be God by that statement then clearly Joseph and Barnabas are also God.
It would be much easier if you would attempt to understand the grammatical composition that I have explained to you instead of ignoring it and saying that I claim the exact opposite of the proof I gave you. You are being intentionally dishonest and willingly ignorant of the truth. Nevertheless, I will try only once more (for I do not have the patience that God does).
God is good. Do you understand what that means? It means that His very being, His complete existence, essence is good. God is being equated/defined as good. When you use the word "good" to describe something-- in your case men -- it becomes an adjective, a descriptor. The passage you provide does not say that Joseph was good; it says that Joseph was a good man. It is the exact same thing with Barnabas; it says that Barnabas was a good man. In both cases Joseph and Barnabas are being equated with man.... Barnabas was a good man. Joseph was a good man. They were good men.
Now, with the premise that God is good, we can change "good" to "God" in each instance according to its grammatical use....
"God is good." "Good" here is used as a noun that defines the subject. So in this sentence "good" can be understood as "God is God". It seems a little redundant, but it is extremely accurate.
Now we have, "Joseph was a good man." Since "good" in this sentence is an adjective, we must use the adjective form of "God" which is "godly." So it is then understood to be, "Joseph was a godly man."
Finally we have, "Barnabas was a good man." Again since "good" in this sentence is an adjective, it is again understood to be, "Barnabas was a godly man." Do you see the difference? Now lets apply this to what Jesus said.
"Why do you call me good?" The key to understanding this is knowing how the word "good" is being used. In this sentence "you" is the subject, "call" is the action verb, and "me" is the direct object. That means "good" is the object compliment; that is, a noun that defines the direct object. In this case "good" it the object compliment defining the direct object "me." So this can be understood to be, "Why do you call me God?"
We can go even further with this and use it to present the whole verse in its true meaning....
" Why do you call me God? There is no God but one, that is God." Again it seems redundant, but it simplifies and gives an extremely accurate meaning of what is actually being said.
Now for fun lets apply this to Matthew 7:17...
"Even so every good tree brings forth beautiful fruit; but a corrupt tree brings forth evil fruit." "Good" here is again used as an adjective so it is understood to be, "Even so every godly tree brings forth beautiful fruit; but a corrupt tree brings forth evil fruit." It makes perfect sense because evil is simply the absence of godliness.
If this doesn't help you understand then you are either genuinely slow of mind, or you are a fool (stupid on purpose). If it is the latter case I will just shake the dust off of my feet and move on.
