ECT Was the man Jesus God before He was Glorified . . .

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Held in Trust



No man can forsake his way [overcome as Jesus did] without being born again. The new birth from above is the enablement for understanding and disposition for putting into practice the law of God. If one is of Calvin, he is blinded to that fact, the fact of the necessity of discipleship now restored by Jesus Christ and built upon Redemption as the foundation for learning the ways of God [His reason for His command given to Adam]. Those of Calvin make no distinction between initial salvation and the new birth nor the need to. Consider this, though of a promise to be redeemed given in the OT, Nicodemus was saved before he ever met with Jesus, before he was ever born again.


And if it could be understood that Jesus, the son of man, "held in trust" the whole Godhead until His glorification, do you believe that would be a violation/distortion of the gospel? If no violation then what might be expected of the one who is born again?
 
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Understanding the "Redemption-Salvation" issue:

It is not complicated IF . . .you can understand that God's purpose for creating Adam was for Adam to procreate a vast family of "Sons" to be "brought unto Glory" in the Godhead. cf Heb.2:10 KJV.
God wanted a vast family of Sons with dispositions just like Jesus Christ, God's representation of what a normal man would have been like had Adam not transgressed. But, Adam did. That did not however, stop the procreation process which continued producing sons except now they all needed to be redeemed. So, in the "fullness of time" which might be better understood to mean, 'When God had the number He required', He sent Jesus to redeem them. . . Simple, eh? Why make it complicated? "For God so loved the world . . . " per John 3:16 KJV.
 

dodge

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Do you have a definition for what "I AM" means? If my recollect is correct Jesus said "I am before Abraham". Ask Clete, he ought to know.

I Am= self existent eternal one.

Your recollection serves you wrong ! Jesus said , before Abraham was I am".
 

Lazy afternoon

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Get understanding of the "Word of God" that it is the verbal expression of the "Heart of God" much as the 'mouth" [lips] is the expression of yours. They are inseparable.

Still need help? Answer the question: "Who spoke the world into existence?" "Whose plan was it?"

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". John1:1 (KJV)

Only in some religious circles does word men other than what was spoken.

No wonder believers seem to be gooks to the non religious.

LA
 

Krsto

Well-known member
Your principle of justice is not correct, is illogical, and is therefore irrelevant.


Questioning the validity of the Trinity doctrine is not the same thing as denying the deity of Christ.

It is easy to believe in the deity of Jesus while disputing whether the Trinity is taught in the Bible as a core belief of Christianity.

It's also easy to believe in the deity of Christ if we can have some latitude about just what is meant by that term according to the biblical authors (who didn't use the term, but did have some kind of understanding of it). To put it another way: Which deity of Christ am I supposed to believe in and be a "legitimate" Christian. Those who believe the bible can lead us to only one conclusion are either ignorant of the myriad interpretations as this idea developed in the early church or just don't want to consider any conclusions contrary to the one they have already come to. Or both. Glad I ain't one of them.
 

Krsto

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The Bible does clearly state that Jesus is God
I love it when people say the bible clearly says something it doesn't say at all. The original Greek term is theos, which CAN mean "God", but it CAN also mean "human representative of God", like the Judges who were also called theos.
and that He existed in the beginning with God the Father
The bible clearly says the logos existed with the Father in the beginning. Please look up the definition of logos in a bible dictionary and notice definition #2 which is "something in one's mind". Like a plan, for example. A blueprint for a house would be a logos in koine Greek.
and there are passages that have all three persons of the Trinity spoken of separately
No, it never has the Holy Spirit as a separate person from the Father. They are the same person, personifications notwithstanding.
and the very first verse of the bible refers directly to the Creator with a plural pronoun.
And for thousands of years the Jews who spoke the language never once thought of God as more than one and if anyone had tried they would have quoted the Shema: "Hear Oh Israel, the Lord thy God is one."

It wasn't until after the church was dominated by Jews that a Gentile dominated church started coming up for novel reasons for the plural pronoun other than what the Jews had believed all along: God was speaking to the angels who would be co-workers in the task of forming man into God's image.

But I'm curious, you've probably heard this before. I used to teach this incessantly during the 3-4 years I was active on TOL. I know you and I have had conversations about this Clete. Yet today you still say "the bible clearly says..." Does anyone on TOL actually learn anything from anyone else?
 

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I love it when people say the bible clearly says something it doesn't say at all. The original Greek term is theos, which CAN mean "God", but it CAN also mean "human representative of God", like the Judges who were also called theos.

The bible clearly says the logos existed with the Father in the beginning. Please look up the definition of logos in a bible dictionary and notice definition #2 which is "something in one's mind". Like a plan, for example. A blueprint for a house would be a logos in koine Greek.

No, it never has the Holy Spirit as a separate person from the Father. They are the same person, personifications notwithstanding.

And for thousands of years the Jews who spoke the language never once thought of God as more than one and if anyone had tried they would have quoted the Shema: "Hear Oh Israel, the Lord thy God is one."

It wasn't until after the church was dominated by Jews that a Gentile dominated church started coming up for novel reasons for the plural pronoun other than what the Jews had believed all along: God was speaking to the angels who would be co-workers in the task of forming man into God's image.

But I'm curious, you've probably heard this before. I used to teach this incessantly during the 3-4 years I was active on TOL. I know you and I have had conversations about this Clete. Yet today you still say "the bible clearly says..."


Does anyone on TOL actually learn anything from anyone else?

When pride is the reason, no. That makes it an easy count.
 

Clete

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I love it when people say the bible clearly says something it doesn't say at all. The original Greek term is theos, which CAN mean "God", but it CAN also mean "human representative of God", like the Judges who were also called theos.
The context determines the meaning. It is not debatable. John 1 presents Jesus as God and states explicitly that He created all things. Who besides God created everything?

The bible clearly says the logos existed with the Father in the beginning.
It also clearly states that the "Logos was God".

Please look up the definition of logos in a bible dictionary and notice definition #2 which is "something in one's mind". Like a plan, for example. A blueprint for a house would be a logos in koine Greek.
I know what the word Logos means. So did John and nearly every person in existence during the first century. It means effectively the same thing we mean when we discuss reason or logic or rational discourse. Again, it is the context that actually determines the intended meaning. In the case of the book of John, the idea being expressed is that God is Logic (in the same sense the God is Love or Justice) and that Logic became flesh and went by the name 'Jesus' and who was baptised by John the Baptist and later died for our sins and rose from the dead and sits now as a man at the right hand of the Father.

No, it never has the Holy Spirit as a separate person from the Father. They are the same person, personifications notwithstanding.
Saying it doesn't make it so.

And for thousands of years the Jews who spoke the language never once thought of God as more than one and if anyone had tried they would have quoted the Shema: "Hear Oh Israel, the Lord thy God is one."
I also, never thing of God as more than one.

It wasn't until after the church was dominated by Jews that a Gentile dominated church started coming up for novel reasons for the plural pronoun other than what the Jews had believed all along: God was speaking to the angels who would be co-workers in the task of forming man into God's image.
The doctrine of the Trinity is based on a lot more than one verse and, once again, the context makes what you claim the Jews believed impossible. I presume that you're referring to the first verse of the bible which refers to God with a plural noun and singular verb. Interesting grammatical error to make in the very first sentence of the most important book ever written. God is not speaking to the angels in the verse nor could He have been because the angels were created the same as everything else...

Exodus 20:11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it.​

But I'm curious, you've probably heard this before. I used to teach this incessantly during the 3-4 years I was active on TOL. I know you and I have had conversations about this Clete. Yet today you still say "the bible clearly says..." Does anyone on TOL actually learn anything from anyone else?
No. Generally speaking they do not. And if you were no more substantive during our previous conversations than you were in this post then it's no wonder you were ineffective in your attempts to convince me. You see, I don't just make naked claims. I have the actual text - the clear, simple, uncomplicated reading of the plain text of scripture. I don't have to pull out obscure, unconfirmed, unconfirmable, references to what some Jew used to believe centuries ago. All I have to do is quote easy to read and understand passages of the bible to know that God is Logic, that Jesus was God incarnate, that prominent Jews such as Moses believed that there is some sort of plurality within the Godhead, that the angels were created during the six days of creation and that therefore what you say doesn't hold water.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

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John 1 also clearly states that the "Logos was WITH God".

You let your incomplete knowledge determine beyond your inability to understand "the rest of the story".

Why?
 

dodge

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John 1 also clearly states that the "Logos was WITH God".

You let your incomplete knowledge determine beyond your inability to understand "the rest of the story".

Why?

Pretty convenient to cut off the part of the verse that PROVES you are wrong !

Jhn 1:1

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Jhn 1:14

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
 

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Pretty convenient to cut off the part of the verse that PROVES you are wrong !

Jhn 1:1

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Jhn 1:14

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Which part? What I wrote was a reminder of a distinction you apparently wish to ignore. "With" and "Was" being that distinction . . nit picker. What is it you hope to accomplishish?
 

Clete

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Which part? What I wrote was a reminder of a distinction you apparently wish to ignore. "With" and "Was" being that distinction . . nit picker. What is it you hope to accomplishish?

Isn't it obvious that his point is that you are the one doing the ignoring? Hypocrite!

It is you who are making statements that seem to have no bearing on the discussion because you have no concept of how to flesh out whatever convoluted point you're trying to make, expecting us all to read your mind and using our inability to do so as proof of your superiority.

Is it that you really thought you were educating us all that John 1 states that "He was with God"? Is that what you thought - that we were going to read your post and then think, "What?! Really?! Let me see!". Then, after going to pull up John 1, we were all going to come running back to the thread to thank you for pointing out the part of the sentence we had all never read before! Is that really what you thought was going to happen? Or did you just post it to be an arrogant dork with no real substantive point whatsoever?

We'll never know because you won't explain yourself.

The fact is that we all know that is says that and it presents no problem for us whatsoever. It is entirely consistent with the idea of the Triune God. It is precisely the fact that it says both that the Word was with God AND the Word was God that those who deny the Trinity have no way of explaining.

Clete
 

dodge

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Which part? What I wrote was a reminder of a distinction you apparently wish to ignore. "With" and "Was" being that distinction . . nit picker. What is it you hope to accomplishish?

I was hoping you would see the parts of the verse you do not see the part that says "the Word was God", and the "Word was made flesh ".
 

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I was hoping you would see the parts of the verse you do not see the part that says "the Word was God", and the "Word was made flesh ".

What makes you think I didn't? Also, from what my post said, what gives you the idea it was incomplete or misleading anyone when I emphasized the one part for a reason you don't refer to? People have a Bible for understanding. Why not make better use of yours?
 

dodge

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What makes you think I didn't? Also, from what my post said, what gives you the idea it was incomplete or misleading anyone when I emphasized the one part for a reason you don't refer to? People have a Bible for understanding. Why not make better use of yours?

All you have done is try to further an agenda that you have no scripture to support. The very scripture you claim to try to explain is the very scripture that proves you are wrong.
 

Danoh

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Which part? What I wrote was a reminder of a distinction you apparently wish to ignore. "With" and "Was" being that distinction . . nit picker. What is it you hope to accomplishish?

True - you were pointing that part out as a distinction; as a means of your actual point and in that instance.

But use of an example, as a means of pointing out one principle or another, will often fail to make its intended point to it's intended recipient, should said recipient take the example used, to be the point being made.

As dodge just did.

dodge often makes that kind of mistake oblivious to his having made it.

He often takes an example given as being the principle said example given had only been given as a means of illustrating the principle meant to be illustrated through said example.

You were using part of the passage as an example of a point you were attempting to make.

At the same time, you are still off on your over all point, nevertheless.

The very often clueless dodge, nevertheless ending up sound on this one, as a result, even if by accident.

The whole exchange on this thread continues to be a fascinating study in the individual modes of perception each participant is following.

Rom. 5:8
Acts 17:11, 12.
 
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