7djengo7
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This is actually ridiculous, how can you not see the error your understanding.
On the contrary, your error is what is ridiculous. How can you not see the error of the misunderstanding that you parrot, as handed down to you from your programmer/handler gods, The Watchtower Tract Society?
You state "The referent of the word 'God' in v. 4 is YHWH",
Yes, because that is true (except, without the quotes around the word 'God').
What you just wrote, there, is gibberish. You think that the word 'God' in the phrase 'one God' has a different referent than the phrase, itself, has??but djengo, we're not discussing who the "God" is according to the verse we're discussing who the "one God" is according to the verse.
You've further stated that this "God" is the Father, Son and HS.
That is true (except, without the quotes around the word 'God').
Since, by the phrase, "one God", Paul is referring to YHWH, and since the Son is YHWH, and since the Holy Ghost is YHWH, just as is the Father, YHWH, it's impossible that Paul is NOT expressing the Holy Ghost and God the Son when he refers to the one God, YHWH. And, by the way, why do YOU deny that the Holy Ghost is YHWH?Try and stay one topic and deal with the matter in hand, where does it express the HS or Jesus as being the one God is the issue of 1 Cor 4-6.
Remember: Only an idiot could write what YOU just wrote. Hey, don't complain to me; I didn't say "YOU are an idiot", did I? Where did I ever express that YOU are an idiot?
Would you agree that the verse does not mention the HS or Jesus in relation to being the "one God" in 1 Cor 8:6, if you disagree with this then please say so and then show me where is states the HS and Jesus are the one God in v6 as it does with the Father?
No. I would NOT agree that the verse does not mention the Holy Ghost or Jesus when Paul refers, by the phrase "one God", to YHWH. To refer to YHWH is ALWAYS to mention God the Son and God the Spirit, just as it is to mention God the Father.
Do you disagree with me when I affirm that Paul, by the phrase "one God", is referring to YHWH? If so, then, again, you have just denied that the Holy Ghost is YHWH.
No djengo, what I simply say and believe according to the text is that there is one God the Father, why?
False. What you believe the passage means is:
But to us there is but one [PERSON WHO IS GOD], the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one [PERSON WHO IS LORD] Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
the verse literally says "there is actually to us one God, the Father" (1 Cor 8:6).
That's true! So, you have just now admitted that the passage DOES NOT LITERALLY SAY:
But to us there is but one [PERSON WHO IS GOD], the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one [PERSON WHO IS LORD] Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
You merely claim, in accordance with your assumption of the unitarian falsehood, that the verse MEANS:
But to us there is but one [PERSON WHO IS GOD], the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one [PERSON WHO IS LORD] Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
You write:
I understand the scripture for what it actually says,
False. You do not understand it at all; you misunderstand it. In your misunderstanding of it, you imagine it to mean:
But to us there is but one [PERSON WHO IS GOD], the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one [PERSON WHO IS LORD] Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Further, you say:
you do not, instead you imagine the HS and Jesus are also the one God despite the verse clearly stating the Father is the one God.
Yet again, you have just denied that the Holy Ghost is YHWH.
You mentioned the word embarrassment, the only one who should be embarrassed here is you as you use arguments that are so basic and easy to overcome that it would put most to shame. On one hand you mock me as you believe I'm am ignorant, yet on the other hand you show you ignorance by using poor arguments, as I will demonstrate.
You quote Isaiah 45:5 which states according to the translation you used "I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me". Tell me Djengo, what word was the "LORD" a substitute for in the Hebrew scriptures? It was a substitute to Gods name, YHWH/Jehovah/Yahweh! Thus the verse you quoted does not read "I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me" but rather "I am YHWH, and there is none else, there is no God beside me".
Here, you have just denied that YHWH is the Lord. Nay, you have just denied that YHWH is A lord. Paul just got done saying that there are "lords many", and YOU claim that YHWH is not even one of them, let alone the SUPREME one.
Therefore your question fails and does not make sense according to the actual Bible. You should try reading from a Bible that hasn't been corrupted with the removal of the most divine name in existence.
I stand corrected in regard to the assumption I made in the question I asked you:
Whom would you say is THE ONE LORD to YOU, NWL? Jesus or Jehovah?
See, I assumed that you believed Jehovah to be a lord, so, it followed from that assumption of mine, that, since you deny that Jesus is Jehovah, you would be embarrassed in being called upon to choose WHICH (Jesus OR Jehovah) you would say is your ONE LORD. But, now you've cleared it up for me; now, I understand that, in the first place, you altogether DENY that Jehovah is a lord, period! So, obviously you will not say that Jehovah is your ONE LORD.
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