beloved57
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Amen and a evidence of someone teaching a false gospel is when they teach salvation by works, by what a person does!
The "L" in TULIP Means that Jesus is NOT Lord
- Thread starter Robert Pate
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Amen and a evidence of someone teaching a false gospel is when they teach salvation by works, by what a person does!
According to you, but not Jesus, John 3:18.
Ask Mr. Religion
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Robert,
When you get my answer you will undobtedly just wave it off or move to yet another cherry-picked verse hoping to prove a point, as is your practice. For you, Scripture is but a collection of propositions that each stand alone, not a coherent revelation in all of its parts, in its entirety, of God. For you, Scripture is not infallible nor inerrant. So I am never surprised when you lift a verse here and there to cobble up a whole doctrine around it. Rather, exegesis for you is but an Easter egg hunt for anything that remotely can be read in by you in support of your arguments. The writer of Proverbs had you in mind, who, when writing under the infallible and inerrant superintendence of the Holy Spirit, wrote: He that is first in his own cause seemeth just; but his neighbour cometh and searcheth him.
It is patently obvious to any casual observer that what you post daily and redundantly tickles the itching ears of the less discerning, but when someone comes along and examines you, the discerning reader cannot but admit your shallowness.
The answer to teachings of Scripture is not the mere capitalization of a word here and there—EVERYONE. Rather the answer to any teaching of Scripture is the full teachings of Scripture itself, as in the very next verse, Hebrews 2:10.
For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.
So either the writer of Hebrews, since he then uses "many" (not "each and every person" as in "everyone") in the very next verse is (1) very wrong when writing "everyone" in the preceding verse (or everything as the original language also supports), or (2) the writer of Hebrews speaks in a sweeping manner to convey the largesse of the numbers of exactly whom Our Lord came to redeem.
I think the illuminated reader will opt for the second position, for the illuminated reader knows Scripture does not contradict itself for Scripture is the word of God in the words of men exactly as God wanted these words to be written at the time they were written.
Given the coherency of God's word in Scripture, we are admonished to seek its full counsel, reconciling the whole to interpret the parts. So, as to the matter or "everyone" versus "not everyone", I call your attention to not a few teachings, including those above, from Scripture that, if you apply the correctives I have offered, may just give you cause to refine your narrow views: Psalm 34:22, Isaiah 53:8, Matthew 1:21, Matthew 20:28, Matthew 26:28, Luke 1:68, Luke 2:1-2, Luke 19:10, John 3:16 (the Father gave His Son for whom? - according to this verse the Son was given for whoever believes in Him (the believing ones) not for the ones not believing in Him), John 5:13, John 6:35-40, John 10:11, John 10:14 -18, John 10:24-29, John 12:32, John 17:1-11, John 17:20, John 17:24-26, Acts 20:28, Romans 5:8-10, Romans 5:18, Romans 8:32-34, Galatians 3:13, Ephesians 1:3-4, Ephesians 1:7, Ephesians 1:13, Ephesians 2:15-16, Ephesians 5:25-27, Hebrews 2:17, Hebrews 3:1, Hebrews 9:12, Hebrews 9:28, Hebrews 10:14, Colossians 1:21-22, 2 Cor 5:14-15;18-19, 1 Timothy 1:15, 2 Timothy 2:4-6, 2 Peter 3:9, 1 John 2:1-2, 1 John 4:14, Titus 2:14, Revelation 5:9.
Once more and in no doubt it will occur again, I have answered you properly for the verses you are wont to tee up in some facile support of your odd notions. Would that you possessed the ability and knowledge to just once return the favor in kind.
AMR
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Just as I suspected. Another smoke screen.
You didn't even come close to explaining Hebrews 2:9.
You think that you can be heard because of your many words, 2 Peter 2:18-20.
beloved57
Well-known member
You have not explained it neither, I don't believe you believe Heb 2:9 or Understand it !
Ask Mr. Religion
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It is a relatively simple verse considering the context.
As noted, the very next verse of the one you had cherry-picked hoping to smuggle in more than it teaches corrects your assumption that "EVERYONE" means each and every person.
AMR
theophilus
Well-known member
You didn't answer the question.
Amen. Good come back.
Not every question is answered by everybody. Would you agree? No
one is obligated to answer all your questions. Do you find yourself
especially, better than most?
Here is your problem.
There are about 75 or more scriptures that tell that Jesus is the savior of the whole world and that whosoever that does nothing more than believe in him shall be saved, Romans 10:13.
Many of these scriptures you are in conflict with.
And then there are the scriptures that tell us that Jesus has reconciled the world unto God, 2 Corinthians 5:19. Here again is your problem. If Jesus has reconciled the world unto God no one needs to be predestinated. Big, big, problem for you.
So, what you will probably do now is post a 5000 word rebuttle and list 400 or 500 scriptures about how the word "world" means the world of the elect.
beloved57
Well-known member
Why are you criticising someone else for not explaining it?
You are as bad as Mr Religion.
When you are confronted with truth you throw out a smoke screen.
beloved57
Well-known member
You are being a hypocrite !
You can't accept the truth of the scripture.
"JESUS HAS TASTED DEATH FOR EVERYONE" Hebrews 2:9.
You think that something is wrong with the Bible, when in reality its you that something is wrong with.
beloved57
Well-known member
Since when did you believe that scripture
Do I detect more Spam?
Ask Mr. Religion
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I hope others witness what Robert thinks passes for actual substantive discussion of a passage he claims in support of his views. Rather than interact substantively, he just merely re-states his view. Nana nana boo boo is not hermeneutics, Robert.
The plain fact stands. Hebrews 2:10 says "many", not each and every one. Hence, you must reconcile this "many" with your claim Hebrews 2:9 teaches each and every person. The only possible explanation will be that "everyone" is a gloss for the largess of God towards the "many" He will bring into the Kingdom through His active and passive obedience for the "many". Such a conclusion comports exactly with the full counsel of Scripture elsewhere.
I think Our Lord was quite clear when His own words were recorded by Matthew in Matthew 20:28. Do you think He meant to say "each and every person" but just sloppily used "many" instead? :AMR1:
Or perhaps Paul was also confused when he wrote Romans 5:15 and Romans 5:19. :AMR1:
Or maybe the writer of Hebrews was also in error writing Hebrews 9:28? :AMR1:
AMR
Christ died for the sins of ALL mankind. Salvation is available to everyone. However,
not ALL will place their faith in Christ and accept the Grace Gospel.
not ALL will place their faith in Christ and accept the Grace Gospel.
Yep, for the whole world. Free choice determines whether we accept the atonement.