Idolater
"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
:chuckle: Yes.
ECT The Gospel Proper
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False analogies are all the rage here on TOL.
Does "the Church" contend also, that the "pope," and its fake priests, because they are not Levitical, should be unmarried?
Matthew 8 KJV
14 And when Jesus was come into Peter’s house, he saw his wife’s mother laid, and sick of a fever. 15 And he touched her hand, and the fever left her: and she arose, and ministered unto them.
Strike 1.
Mark 1 KJV
29 And forthwith, when they were come out of the synagogue, they entered into the house of Simon and Andrew, with James and John. 30 But Simon’s wife’s mother lay sick of a fever, and anon they tell him of her.
Strike 2.
Luke 4 KJV
38 And he arose out of the synagogue, and entered into Simon’s house. And Simon’s wife’s mother was taken with a great fever; and they besought him for her.
Paul, the umpire:
1 Corinthians 9 KJV
5 Have we not power to lead about a sister, a wife, as well as other apostles, and as the brethren of the Lord, and Cephas?
Strike 3. says Paul, your apostle. You're out. Those crazy Catholics....
Respective members of the boc, including myself, are the church, in this dispensation. I cannot speak for other members of the boc, but know one asked me of my "contending."
glorydaz
Well-known member
It's too bad you are always so quick to take offense. I was making a particular point, and you have missed it because of your thin skin. You seem to have claimed that the "renewing of our mind" is contingent on a "rule" that we must study the Scripture. I was pointing out that such a "rule" is merely wrapping a truth with legalism, and because of that, it can lead to spiritual pride. Just like any other rule can do.
What? Like our being CREATED IN CHRIST JESUS as a new creature where all things are new? Do you mean that isn't true? Do you mean it's only true for those who strive to make it so? My experience has been the harder man tries, the more he gets in God's way. But, of course, you are so much more learned than I am, who can say?
Paul is not saying we work FOR our salvation, so I have no idea what point you're trying to make here. How does that refute what I was saying?
And that would be conforming us into His image, right? Not like our conforming ourselves into His image.
No, those are how believers live by faith.....at peace witnessing what the Lord is accomplishing in the lives of the body, and allowing others to see what God is doing (has ordained) rather than others seeing the person doing the striving. (Especially when they end up boasting about how well they are working.)
"Easy" you say? Are you going to make up your mind on this, or continue to contradict yourself?
Striving for the faith of the Gospel is walking by faith, Danoh. Trust in the Lord instead of yourself. Your reference to "automatons" sounds like a worker speaking of those who walk by faith and trust in the Lord instead of themselves.
Ah, so they will be puppets? I always wondered how that would work.
turbosixx
New member
Excellent post. THANK YOU. I will do my best to reply with an equally well-prepared post. Sorry this is long winded. I did my best to make it as concise as possible and, hopefully, still get my points across.
I know you believe water baptism was for Israelites only. I would like to explain why I believe it’s for everyone in order to be added to Christ. I will then provide proof that it’s for everyone by applying that understanding to the details of how people were converted (added). Even the people added by Paul are consistent with water baptism being for everyone.
The Priesthood Changed
I read your post on the “initiation” of priests and how it takes water, blood and Spirit. I agree. The OT contains many things that are a pattern to help us understand the things in Christ.
Jesus could not serve as priest under the Law of Moses because He was not from the tribe of Levi.
Heb. 7:13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar. 14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
Jesus would become king and priest just like Melchisedec who was king and priest outside of the law of Moses.
Heb. 7:15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest, 16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life. 17 For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
Since Jesus could not be priest under the law of carnal commandment (Moses), there had to be a change in law.
Hebrews 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
The high priest was the only one who went in to the most holy place to offer blood for the sins of the people. In order for Jesus to offer His blood for the sins of the people as high priest, there had to be a change in law.
Jesus is high priest and the people of His church are priests.
The consecration ceremony was for the priests only, not all the people. Only the priests offered daily sacrifices to God for themselves and the people, not all the people. I suggest to you that John’s baptism not only identified Jesus as a priest but was also preparing all the people for service to God as priests, Rom. 12:1. We will see the blood and Spirit come later after Jesus’ death, burial and resurrection.
The baptism of John for the people was a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Of all the OT washings, none were for this. Deviation from the law was not acceptable and could/did result in death. The baptism of John was the beginning of the gospel of Christ and His priesthood.
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; 2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. 3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. 4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. 5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.
Jesus became high priest under the law He established, by His D,B,R which is the law of Christ/faith/liberty, Gal. 6:2,Rom. 3:27,1 Cor. 9:21, Jam. 1:25. Under His law, whoever is in Him is a priest and can offer spiritual sacrifices that are pleasing to God.
Before Jesus’ death, he declared that He was going to build His church and that it would be founded on the fact that He is the Christ. Jesus purchased that church with His blood, Acts 20:28, and members of the church have Jesus’ blood applied to them. In Christ we are clothed with Christ and are redeemed by His blood, Gal. 3:27; Eph. 1:7.
Those on Pentecost that believed had their sins forgiven and were added to the church by receiving the water, Spirit and the blood.
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized(water) every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost(Spirit).
2:47 Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church(blood) daily such as should be saved.
Water, Blood and Spirit are for everyone who believes. Patterned after the old law but not the old law.
When we look at Jesus commissioning of the 12 in Mark 16 and Matthew 28, we see that He does not limit them to the Israel only as He did before but sends them to make disciples of all nations. Some will say that because they don’t see the 12 making disciples of all nations that water baptism must therefore be for the Jews only and not for everyone. I can see how some might see it that way but we must remember the gospel was to the Jews first.
After the Jews had heard the gospel for a period of time, God sends Peter to Gentiles. Peter, guided by the one Spirit, converted those Gentiles just as Jesus instructed, even to the point of commanding water baptism because Jesus instructed baptize believers.
If we look at the details of how Paul added people to the church, Jew and Gentile, we see he followed the same instructions. He baptized those that believed.
Paul baptized the jailer when he believed the word of the Lord.
Acts 16:32 And they spake unto him the word of the Lord, and to all that were in his house.33 And he took them the same hour of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and all his, straightway.
If you will notice in the next verse it says the jailer, after baptism, rejoiced believing in God.
16:34 And when he had brought them into his house, he set meat before them, and rejoiced, believing in God with all his house.
Believing in the word of the Lord, that Paul preached, included being baptized. Just as Peter baptized believing Gentiles, so did Paul.
Looking at those converted in Acts 19 should be all the proof anyone needs to see that water baptism is part of the gospel. These men had heard the word of the Lord and were believers.
Acts 18:24 And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus. 25 This man was instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in the spirit, he spake and taught diligently the things of the Lord, knowing only the baptism of John.
W see the only thing Aollos didn’t have correct was baptism in the name of the Father, and the Son and the Holy Spirit (Jesus) so he baptized them with what he knew which was John’s baptism of repentance. We see in the following verses that Aquila and Priscilla see his error and taught him about baptism in the name of Jesus.
When Paul comes to town and runs into some of these disciples, 19:1, that Apollos converted but incorrectly baptized, he doesn’t question if they are believers. He doesn’t question what they were taught but when he finds out that they hadn’t received the Holy Spirit, he questions their baptism.
If there is one baptism in Paul’s gospel and the Holy Spirit does the baptizing at the moment of belief, it doesn’t make sense why Paul would ask, “Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? When he finds they don't even know about the Holy Spirit, he questions their baptism. And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? Again, why would Paul ask about baptism if the Holy Spirit does it at the moment of belief.
We see that Paul doesn’t preach the word of the Lord to them because they are already believers. He instead just clears up what John’s baptism was for and then he baptizes them in the name of Jesus. Only after that does he lay hands on them giving them the Holy Spirit (gifts).
19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. 5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
No matter who believed, Jew or Gentile, Paul baptized them in the name of Jesus just as Jesus had instructed the 12 confirming that it is not for the Jews only but for everyone just as Jesus commanded.
1 Corinthians 12:13
I would suggest to you that what this verse means is when one is water baptized the Holy Spirit adds them to the church. We see that here.
Acts 2:41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.
When these people believed they were water baptized and the Spirit added them to the church. The Spirit added to Christ those who had been baptized. Baptized into Christ.
We know that the Corinthians in the church at Corinth were water baptized in the name of Jesus. When Paul hears about the divisions going on in the church, he asks them “or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?” He’s being sarcastic to make a point. They were baptized in the name of Jesus and that is whom Paul is addressing. Paul is addressing those who were baptized in the name of Jesus.
Paul gives them a warning and uses an example, 10:6,11, from the OT. To help them really understand it applies to them, he points out that the Israelites who left Egypt were water baptized and were partakers of Christ.
1 Cor. 10:1 For I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that our fathers were all under the cloud, and all passed through the sea, 2 and all were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea,
Paul makes it clear the Israelites were buried (covered) by water by stating twice that they were under the cloud and in the sea, which are water. So two chapters later when they hear they were baptized into the body they realize that when they were baptized in the name of Jesus at their conversion, Acts 18:8, the Spirit added them to the church as we see in Acts 2.
He also tells the Corinthians that the Israelites were partakers of Christ just as they are.
10:3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
Roman 6
I agree with you that Jesus was speaking of His death when He said they would drink from the same cup and be baptized with the same baptism. All the apostles died for the name of Jesus and only John was spared execution. Some Christians have died for the name of Jesus but I would say it’s a small percentage.
I suggest to you that Romans 6 is speaking of water baptism. If we look at verse 5 it says, IF we die a death like His.
6:5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death,
Believing the gospel is not like a death, burial and resurrection but water baptism is. After we believe we are still spiritually dead, Acts 22:16, and need to be buried. Verse 4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death:
Rising out of the water we are made spiritually alive (born). Verse 4 that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
So if we die a death like Jesus we will also be resurrected like Jesus.
6:5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection:
Peter says that is how water baptism saves us, by the resurrection of Jesus.
1 Peter 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
There are many more details I could add but this is already too long.
Idolater
"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
No, that's not the reason.
It's within the bishops' authority to decide whether or not the clergy ought to be single. The bishops teach rightly that this discipline is not divinely mandated, but man-made, and the bishops are authorized to make this choice. It is changeable, but they have not seen fit to change it back, as is within their authority.
Unlike my example, about the clergy being limited to men only, which Is divinely mandated.
Right, and the Church has an authentic teaching office, the Bishop, whose job is not to interpret the Scripture, but to transmit all things Apostolic, whether by the Apostles' words, or their epistles. Knowing all things Apostolic, makes scriptural interpretation possible for anybody.
The Body of Christ is frayed right now, and I would like us to all be one again. I'm not sure what that will take, here on the ground.
Paul, speaking with the authority of God, again:
Now the Spirit expressly says that in latter times some will depart from the faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits and doctrines of demons,speaking lies in hypocrisy, having their own conscience seared with a hot iron,forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth.For every creature of God is good, and nothing is to be refused if it is received with thanksgiving;for it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer. - 1 Timothy 4:1-5 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1Timothy4:1-5&version=NKJV
Which means that your beloved bishops do not have the authority to forbid marriage, along with the fact that they have departed the faith in doing so.
Paul, or Idolater (speaking of the bishops)?
Sorry, gonna have to go with Paul on this one.
You lied, again above. Why did you lie? What was your motivation? No,Paul does not "makes it clear the Israelites were buried (covered) by water by stating twice that they were under the cloud and in the sea, which are water."
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Exodus 15 KJV
19 For the horse of Pharaoh went in with his chariots and with his horsemen into the sea, and the Lord brought again the waters of the sea upon them; but the children of Israel went on dry land in the midst of the sea.
__________________________
You lied-on record:
The basic idea is IDENTIFICATION for the purpose of change in condition/identity/status.
"And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea...." 1 Cor. 10:2 KJV
They were identified with Moses. In no uncertain terms- Exodus 14:16- 22 KJV="dry ground", Exodus 14:29 KJV,Exodus 15:19 KJV="dry land". No water! The Egyptians were wet, covered by water, not the Israelites.
You lied:
Exodus 14:16 KJV
16 but lift thou up thy rod, and stretch out thine hand over the sea, and divide it: and the children of Israel shall go on dry ground through the midst of the sea.
Exodus 14:21-22 KJV
21 And Moses stretched out his hand over the sea; and the Lord caused the sea to go back by a strong east wind all that night, and made the sea dry land, and the waters were divided. 22 And the children of Israel went into the midst of the sea upon the dry ground: and the waters were a wall unto them on their right hand, and on their left.
Exodus 14 KJVp
26 And the Lord said unto Moses, Stretch out thine hand over the sea, that the waters may come again upon the Egyptians, upon their chariots, and upon their horsemen. 27 And Moses stretched forth his hand over the sea, and the sea returned to his strength when the morning appeared; and the Egyptians fled against it; and the Lord overthrew the Egyptians in the midst of the sea. 28 And the waters returned, and covered the chariots, and the horsemen, and all the host of Pharaoh that came into the sea after them; there remained not so much as one of them. 29 But the children of Israel walked upon dry land in the midst of the sea; and the waters were a wall unto them on their right hand, and on their left.
Exodus 15 KJV
19 For the horse of Pharaoh went in with his chariots and with his horsemen into the sea, and the Lord brought again the waters of the sea upon them; but the children of Israel went on dry land in the midst of the sea.
Tell all of TOL why you lied?
_______________________________________
The basic idea behind the concept of baptism is identification=placing or putting something into another substance, performing an action, with the resulting purpose of a change in the state of the item from its previous condition=change in identity, change in condition, change in status.
Symbol? No one was buried in water. The Lord Jesus Christ was not buried in a liquid grave, but in rocks, and buried when dead. In contrast, the "dry baptismal" candidate is buried as soon as he has received life!
Idolater
"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
I go with Paul also. Paul created bishops, and instructed them on how to create new bishops. The bishops do not forbid marriage. Marriage is one of the Church's sacraments.
Also, history has recorded for us those who actually did forbid marriage, wrongly teaching that the marital act was evil, or, conversely, that marriage was unnecessary and people should just fornicate. This is what this warning was clearly targeting.
You lied:
1 Timothy 3 KJV
1 This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. 2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; 3 not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; 4 one that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; 5 (for if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?) 6 Not a novice, lest being lifted up with pride he fall into the condemnation of the devil. 7 Moreover he must have a good report of them which are without; lest he fall into reproach and the snare of the devil.
"the husband of one wife,"
You: It does not really mean that, as the bishops can determine that, in an endless circle, you see, uh....
And you Romans made up this wicked "priest" system. The only priesthood, recognized to date, by the LORFD God, was the Levitical priesthood, composed of the sons of Aaron, in the past, and in the future, the "kingdom of priests," comprised of the believing remnant of the nation Israel.
You Roman frauds "ain't that," no matter how much you spin it, lie about it. And , furthermore, Peter, and the 11, are not the apostles designated by the Lord Jesus Christ, for the boc-Paul is.
No, it is not-you lied.
No-respective members of the body of Christ are never referred to as "priests"-you lied again.And only the lost need a High Priest.
1 John 2:1 KJV
My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
A parent first teaches his child to "sin not."
These are not lost people, sinners, for...
...we have an advocate with the Father,...
It does not say "High Priest"-it says "advocate."
Sinners need a Saviour, a High Priest, not an advocate. The Lord Jesus Christ is only an advocate for God the Father's children, whether it be the believing remnant, the little flock, of the nation Israel, or the boc.
:chuckle:
Good one, turbo.
Have I, or have I not, repeatedly advised you to at least read the first five books of the Bible that various things described in the Prophets, and in the NT, are based on, and even some things Paul every so often describes in his writings.
There is a reason why he used the phrase "THE cloud" while addressing those Israelites in the Body at Corinth.
Because THEY would know what he was talking about by his mention of "THE cloud."
Heck, even the most BASIC of word studies - in - the - OT - lazy - makes - it - OBVIOUS why he said "THE cloud" - WHAT he'd meant by "THE cloud."
Very well, lazy, I'll do that much for ya...
Exodus 13:17 And it came to pass, when Pharaoh had let the people go, that God led them not through the way of the land of the Philistines, although that was near; for God said, Lest peradventure the people repent when they see war, and they return to Egypt:
13:21 And the LORD went before them by day in a pillar of a cloud, to lead them the way; and by night in a pillar of fire, to give them light; to go by day and night:
13:22 He took not away the pillar of the cloud by day, nor the pillar of fire by night, from before the people.
Exodus 16:10 And it came to pass, as Aaron spake unto the whole congregation of the children of Israel, that they looked toward the wilderness, and, behold, the glory of the LORD appeared in the cloud.
Exodus 19:9 And the LORD said unto Moses, Lo, I come unto thee in a thick cloud, that the people may hear when I speak with thee, and believe thee for ever. And Moses told the words of the people unto the LORD.
Exodus 24:15 And Moses went up into the mount, and a cloud covered the mount.
Exodus 24:16 And the glory of the LORD abode upon mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it six days: and the seventh day he called unto Moses out of the midst of the cloud.
Exodus 34:5 And the LORD descended in the cloud, and stood with him there, and proclaimed the name of the LORD.
Exodus 40:34 Then a cloud covered the tent of the congregation, and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle.
Exodus 40:35 And Moses was not able to enter into the tent of the congregation, because the cloud abode thereon, and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle.
Exodus 40:36 And when the cloud was taken up from over the tabernacle, the children of Israel went onward in all their journeys:
Exodus 40:38 For the cloud of the LORD was upon the tabernacle by day, and fire was on it by night, in the sight of all the house of Israel, throughout all their journeys.
Leviticus 16:2 And the LORD said unto Moses, Speak unto Aaron thy brother, that he come not at all times into the holy place within the vail before the mercy seat, which is upon the ark; that he die not: for I will appear in the cloud upon the mercy seat.
Numbers 9:16 So it was alway: the cloud covered it by day, and the appearance of fire by night.
Matthew 17:5 While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.
Luke 21:27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
And so on..duh-uh.
"Study to shew thyself approved" turbo, your reading your own ideas into things is not...what cutting straight the word of truth is about, 2 Tim. 2:15.
Time you took a hiatus and invested some real time in Genesis thru Deuteronomy.
Seriously,
Acts 17: 11, 12.
You're the one who said this:
Or did someone take over your account and post that?
Anyways, I then said, in response:
Paul: Clearly states that THE HOLY SPIRIT HIMSELF SAYS that there will be those who "depart from the faith . . . forbidding to marry."
Idolater:
:think:
If someone forbids marriage (for anyone, as Paul makes no specifications), then they have fallen out of the faith.
The Catholic church has forbidden that it's clergy marry.
Therefore, they have fallen out of the faith.
It's as simple as that.
You said:
If it's a SACRAMENT ("a religious ceremony or act of the Christian Church that is regarded as an outward and visible sign of inward and spiritual divine grace, in particular"; "(in the Roman Catholic and many Orthodox Churches) the rites of baptism, confirmation, the Eucharist, penance, anointing of the sick, ordination, and matrimony.") then why do the bishops say that the clergy are not to marry!? Forbidding something that according to their own beliefs would show spiritual grace?
:liberals:
You said:
Paul says the following, under GOD'S authority:
Spoiler
Spoiler
And let's not forget that GOD HIMSELF said:
Then God blessed them, and God said to them, “Be fruitful and multiply; fill the earth and subdue it; have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over every living thing that moves on the earth.” - Genesis 1:28 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis1:28&version=NKJV
And the Lord God said, “ It is not good that man should be alone; I will make him a helper comparable to him.” . . . And Adam said: “This is now bone of my bones And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man.”Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh. - Genesis 2:18,23-24 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis2:18,23-24&version=NKJV
ANYONE who says "do not marry" is going against God's decree of "Be fruitful and multiply."
That includes the bishops.
In other words, no, the bishops are NOT authorized to forbid marriage, because to do so contravenes God Himself.
God said "be fruitful and multiply," therefore man has a RIGHT to marry. Denying that right puts one in opposition to God.
Respective members of the boc have appointed me an elder, bishop. As such, I allow "popes," even though they are frauds, and the fake "priests" of Romanism, to marry.
So there.
turbosixx
New member
If we have Paul converting after Acts 19, why didn't you point it out instead of giving your opinion?
Why did Paul baptize him if there is one baptism in this dispensation and it's not water?
turbosixx
New member
You're looking at things written to Christians to understand HOW they became Christian. God has seen fit to give us HOW people became Christians. What we see Paul do in converting and what we read him writing to those converted should agree, not disagree.
turbosixx
New member
You avoid conversions because they prove your opinion wrong. As I have said before, you might be able to teach me some things but I will never believe mad. It doesn't add up.
turbosixx
New member
I think the reason they bought into it is because they believe they can see things this mere mortals cannot. You can tell by their replies they are proud.
It's sad that with 2 verses, taken out of context, they have made Jesus's commandment null and void. Even though "their" apostle water baptized the people he converted.
Idolater
"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Rather: Me: I just read the Scripture. Here is what it says, that you have already quoted:
| This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. 2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; 3 not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; 4 one that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; 5 (for if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?) 6 Not a novice, lest being lifted up with pride he fall into the condemnation of the devil. 7 Moreover he must have a good report of them which are without; lest he fall into reproach and the snare of the devil. |
You see, that Paul gave the Reason why bishops should be monogamous family men, because the Church needs to know through analogy whether he will "take care of the Church of God." With all parish priests being single men, and entrusted with pastoring a parish church, the Church can now know More Directly whether he can "take care of the Church of God" (1Ti3:5KJV), before making him a bishop. The Church has been blessed for centuries now, with this luxury of having only single men be pastors, and we take both 1st Timothy 3 and 1st Corinthians 7:32-33 KJV into proper account. If we can know that a man will "take care of the Church of God," then if he is single, he will be better able to do so, per 1st Corinthians 7:32-33 KJV.
The Levitical priesthood has been fulfilled. The priesthood of Melchizedek is the priesthood of the New Covenant, which was dedicated with Christ's blood.
We agree to disagree.
- Status