God_Is_Truth
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elohiym said:I disagree with your conclusion.
He that saith he is in the light, and hateth his brother, is in darkness even until now. 1 John 2:9
The person who rapes a child, hates a child. It should be a bumper sticker!
Would you claim that what John stated doesn't apply to this dispensation? Sounds like a general principle of salvation to me.
John's statement is in full agreement with mine, that he who lives a sinful lifestyle (one marked with lots of sin) is in darkness. when you hate your brother, it's not a one time mess up. it's a continual thing.
I asked: Would you say if someone is raping a child, they are being touched by "that wicked one?"
What is his lust, but covetousness?
...for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. Romans 7:7
what version is that? i tend to use the NASB and it renders is this way:
for I would not have known about coveting if the Law had not said, "YOU SHALL NOT COVET."
So if you're lusting, you're coveting, according to Paul.
whether lusting is coveting is debatable, as they are different commands in the 10 commandments, but regardless, how does that address my point that it's not the devil, but our own sinful flesh?
All sin is of the devil, so the wicked one is certainly touching a child molester while he is in the act of raping.
well instead of addressing my point you've gone and assumed your conclusion is true.
So? Paul did, too. Here's one example:
Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. 1 Corinthians 14:34
So do you think he is telling them to keep that command, or break it?
the fact that he states "as also saith the law" proves he is not quoting the law or using it as the basis. he quotes the law as additional support which means it is not the center of his point. he is not preaching law abidance here. Paul does not preach that we are under law and need to keep it.
Nope. To be under the law would mean that my righteousness depended upon me keeping the letter of the law, which is what the old covenant with was.
put yourself in the shoes of a 1st century Jew, who knew nothing about the apostle Paul. now what do you think the phrase "under the law" would've meant to him?
I stated: Paul said "awake to righteousness and sin not." Isn't that part of this dispensation?
again, we have a disagreement on the translation. the nasb renders it thus:
34Become sober-minded as you ought, and stop sinning;
"become sober minded" is similar to "awake to righteousness", but also distinctly different. Paul's words here are calling the individual to live as he ought to, in accordance with the righteousness he has.
I don't.
isn't that what you have been implying? or do you hold that one who sins is clearly not saved and never was saved?
I haven't lost my free wil, if that is what you are implying.
it was.
It is impossible for a person in Christ to sin. A person in Christ is saved. There is no sin in Christ.
1 John 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
So if we are in him, and in him is no sin, how can we possibly be sinning while in him? It's just not possible. Thankfully.
do you mean practically sinning? that someone in Christ will never do something that was once deemed sinful? that once they are saved they never again steal, murder, rape, lie, cheat or do anything else sinful?
or do you mean that since we are in Christ we cannot sin because he is our righteousness? that though we do things that previously were called sin, they are not counted against us anymore and therefore we do not sin?