Originally posted by STONE
Clete,
I'm not taking your sarcasm personally, but observing that sarcasm is more important to you than forgiveness.
You cannot know this to be true based on anything I've said on this thread.
My comment about forgiving my sarcasm was aimed at getting you to not take the sarcasm personally. If you didn't take it personally then it succeeded. The whole point is that I was trying to be substantive not personal. Can you say the same about the comment quoted above?
Any OV argument presented appears to have now deteriorated into denial: "well that doesn't mean anything" or "that was influenced from another philosophy". I don't see any OV question or point left standing, if you do then present it...now; that is all I am looking for. Emotionality has nothing to do with it.
You have ignored my argument almost completely! How can you even think of saying that there is no point left standing? Have you actually read my posts?
The Judaic ideas I presented to you are nothing new. Look for yourself into most any commentary on classic Judaism or the Talmud. Or ask your local orthodox rabbi if he will talk to you.
Should I take this to mean that you cannot site your source, or that you will not site your source?
Where did you get the idea that I believe eastern or Egyptian religion had influence on Christian theology? My point was the idea predates the Greeks. The connection between Christian theology and timelessness is Judaism, not Greece.
What would have been the point of bringing up Eastern or Egyptian beliefs if not to suggest that they have had some influence on Christian theology?
There are four main points…
1. I know of no historical evidence that what you are saying is true in the first place. Where do you get the idea that the Egyptians believed in the timelessness of their gods? And there's no telling what you even mean by Eastern religions. It's very possible that they did have some concept of a timeless deity but they also have no trouble with internal contradictory ideas in their theologies (both/and vs. either/or logic) so I suspect it doesn't matter.
2. If such evidence of their beliefs in the timelessness of god exists, it has no connection whatsoever to Christian theology. At best all you've done is show that pagans have no trouble with such an irrational idea.
3. Every theology in the current Christian faith that has anything to do with the timelessness of God can be traced directly back to Plato. There is no earlier sources for such beliefs that have anything to do with Christianity. Basically speaking, had Augustine not believed these things, neither would you, and Augustine's theology was undeniably influenced by Aristotelian philosophy to say the least.
4. Who came up with the irrational concept of a timeless god makes no difference at all! Proving the source of an irrational idea is not required; it's irrational and therefore must be false, so whoever it was who came up with it first is a non issue, they were wrong and so are you.
This 4th point is the primary point that I have been making that you have not responded to at all (unless I missed it).
Please explain how something that exists can do so without duration, if you can. If you cannot, then points 1-3 are moot.
Resting in Him,
Clete