New International PerVersion

Jason0047

Member
Q: So if not all the Bibles say the same thing, then shouldn't there be different faiths based upon these different Bibles?
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
Why am I not surprised?

I was given an NIV when I was converted and it fell apart with use within 18 months. One day I was in Genesis and came to the verse, And God said to Noah, ''go into the ark''….I was not happy about this and could find no comfort. I checked with a KJV and discovered that the Eternal had said to Noah, ''COME into the ark''. I had great comfort in this and wondered what else my be amiss that would affect my soul. There are of course thousands of omissions and perversions in the NIV.

Indeed. I have dubbed it the "Workers Bible". It seems to me they change scripture to tout the obedience of man instead of the obedience of ONE for man. Your example makes the point for me. "Go" is a command man must obey to be saved, and "Come" is an invitation man desires to obey to be saved. Big difference.
 

intojoy

BANNED
Banned
You are grasping at straws with this one. There is no mistranslation here. Here is what



Jamieson-Fausset-Brown says in their commentary:



"Ye shall know my breach of promise—that is, in consequence of your violation of the covenant betwixt you and Me, by breaking the terms of it, it shall be null and void on My part, as I shall withhold the blessings I promised in that covenant to confer on you on condition of your obedience."
In other words, God owns the punishment or the breach of His promises. So God can say "my breach of promise." For those who break God's Laws forfeit the promises of God. They will instead experience what it is like to know His breach of promise or punishments for disobeying His Laws.


These did not lose their salvation.


Posted from the TOL App!
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
At least the NIV does not teach that the Lord will break His promises, as does the KJB:

"After the number of the days in which ye searched the land, even forty days, each day for a year, shall ye bear your iniquities, even forty years, and ye shall know my breach of promise" (Num.14:34; KJV).​

The NIV does not make that error:

"For forty years—one year for each of the forty days you explored the land—you will suffer for your sins and know what it is like to have me against you’ " (Num.14:34; NIV).​

You see error where none exists. Like any other verse, it must be read in context. Your translation from NIV tries to explain what needs no explanation. The contract was declared null and void by God. The reasons are clearly pointed out by Him.

Jeremiah 3:8
And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.​
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
And I believe the Bible. For I am a "Bible believer"; And I am not a "Bible agnostic."

Then please address what I said about your comments here:

You are grasping at straws with this one. There is no mistranslation here. Here is what

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown says in their commentary:

" For those who break God's Laws forfeit the promises of God. They will instead experience what it is like to know His breach of promise or punishments for disobeying His Laws.'

If someone does not meet the conditions of a "conditional" promise then the one who made the promise cannot be said to have broken his promise.

Besides, the Scriptures make it plain that the Lord did not break His promise:

" Blessed be the LORD, that hath given rest unto his people Israel, according to all that he promised: there hath not failed one word of all his good promise, which he promised by the hand of Moses his servant" (1 Ki.8:56).​
 

Jason0047

Member
These did not lose their salvation.

Disobedience of God's Laws without repentance (followed by death) never leads to eternal life but only punishment in the after life.

Jude 1:4-7
4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

5 I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not.

6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.

7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.

2 Peter 2:6-10
6 And turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrha into ashes condemned them with an overthrow, making them an ensample unto those that after should live ungodly; The Godly will Be Delivered

7 And delivered just Lot, vexed with the filthy conversation of the wicked:

8 (For that righteous man dwelling among them, in seeing and hearing, vexed his righteous soul from day to day with their unlawful deeds; )

9 The Lord knoweth how to deliver the godly out of temptations, and to reserve the unjust unto the day of judgment to be punished:profane and Blasphemous Seducers

10 But chiefly them that walk after the flesh in the lust of uncleanness, and despise government. Presumptuous are they, selfwilled, they are not afraid to speak evil of dignities.

2 Peter 2:12-13
"...and shall utterly perish in their own corruption; And shall receive the reward of unrighteousness, as they that count it pleasure to riot in the day time..."
In fact, I double dog dare you to slowly read the rest of the chapter here.

http://biblehub.com/kjv/2_peter/2.htm

Don't just read it with OSAS glasses. Just read it from an objective standpoint.
 

Jason0047

Member
Then please address what I said about your comments here:

If someone does not meet the conditions of a "conditional" promise then the one who made the promise cannot be said to have broken his promise.

Besides, the Scriptures make it plain that the Lord did not break His promise:

" Blessed be the LORD, that hath given rest unto his people Israel, according to all that he promised: there hath not failed one word of all his good promise, which he promised by the hand of Moses his servant" (1 Ki.8:56).​

I have already shown you according to Scripture what the passage is actually saying. It is up to you if you want to accept it or not.

For where you see error in the Scriptures, I see the Word of God as perfect and making sense as a whole (with verses referring back and forth to one another in beautiful harmony).

For the atheist sees errors in God's Word where none exist. Are you a "bible believer" or are you a "bible agnostic"?

For a "bible believer" just believes the Bible and does not question it or claim that it has errors.

And a "bible agnostic" claims that there may be a perfect Word of God somewhere or that it existed at one time. They are just not sure.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You see error where none exists. Like any other verse, it must be read in context. Your translation from NIV tries to explain what needs no explanation. The contract was declared null and void by God. The reasons are clearly pointed out by Him.

Jeremiah 3:8
And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.​

That has nothing to do with God making a promise. Instead, Israel committed adultery and therefore the Lord rightly gave her a bill of divorce.

That has nothing to do with the Lord breaking a promise.

Ig the Lord promises something and He does not follow through on that promise then that would mean He lied. And God cannot lie so He cannot breat His promises:

"In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began" (Titus 1:2).​

I never thought I would see the day when believers would be arguing that God breaks His promises!

"God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?" (Num.23:19).​
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I have already shown you according to Scripture what the passage is actually saying. It is up to you if you want to accept it or not.

My friend, I searched and searched and you have not said even one word about the following verse which proves that the translation of Numbers 14:34 in the King James Bible is in error:

"Blessed be the LORD, that hath given rest unto his people Israel, according to all that he promised: there hath not failed one word of all his good promise, which he promised by the hand of Moses his servant" (1 Ki.8:56).​
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
Q: How do we get our faith?

A: The Word of God (Romans 10:17).

You missed a critical step here, Jason. Faith comes by hearing. And hearing comes by the Word of God. And if you read Romans 10, you see Paul detailing Israel's hardness of heart, unbelief and deaf ears. It's important, I think, that he quotes Isaiah who was told to make the people deaf by prophesying (Isaiah 6:10). So it was God who created that situation after Israel provoked God to His face multiple times. And in the state of deafness, one doesn't just decide to hear and believe - one must first have his ears unstopped. That can only be done by God - by the Word of God (as the scripture says). Then, once someone hears, then they can believe. So it isn't a willingness to believe that evokes real faith, it is the quickening by the Spirit of God that causes men to hear and then respond to the gospel. It can't be otherwise. So a man's faith is not created by reading scripture, it is created by (spiritually) hearing the Word. It is only done by a supernatural work of God. In that sense, faith is God's gift.
 

Jason0047

Member
You missed a critical step here, Jason. Faith comes by hearing. And hearing comes by the Word of God. And if you read Romans 10, you see Paul detailing Israel's hardness of heart, unbelief and deaf ears. It's important, I think, that he quotes Isaiah who was told to make the people deaf by prophesying (Isaiah 6:10). So it was God who created that situation after Israel provoked God to His face multiple times. And in the state of deafness, one doesn't just decide to hear and believe - one must first have his ears unstopped. That can only be done by God - by the Word of God (as the scripture says). Then, once someone hears, then they can believe. So it isn't a willingness to believe that evokes real faith, it is the quickening by the Spirit of God that causes men to hear and then respond to the gospel. It can't be otherwise. So a man's faith is not created by reading scripture, it is created by (spiritually) hearing the Word. It is only done by a supernatural work of God. In that sense, faith is God's gift.

You cannot have faith (i.e. being born of water) if you do not hear some word or words taken from the Bible. For you cannot have the gospel without the Bible.
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
You cannot have faith or being born of water if you do not hear some word or words taken from the Bible. For you cannot have the gospel without the Bible.

So (for instance) the Muslims in the Middle East that are finding Christ in huge numbers - not because anyone spoke to them, but because Christ appeared to them in a dream - they don't really believe?

These people who see Christ are not converted by the dream but given the faith to believe and they seek out missionaries or people they know will have the answers and they find the scriptures and Christ. It wasn't the bible that made them believe, it was God alone.

So I don't think you are correct in what you say. I don't believe that's what scripture says.
 
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