Matthew 12:40

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steko

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steko,

re: "The third day counting backward from Sunday would be Friday like we say, 'Three days ago such and such took place.'"


If on the first day of the week, they said "One day ago such and such took place", to what day of the week would they be referring?

I don't know that they would use such language but according to my use it would be the same as saying 'yesterday, such and such took place'.

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If one bases his understanding of the crucifixion week timeline on a presupposition that Matt 12:40 has to be a three X 24hr period and it can't be otherwise, then one must force the chronological narrative to fit. It's settled beforehand. It can't be otherwise.

But, if one reads the chronological narratives, one discovers that Christ instructed His disciples to prepare(hetoimazo) the passover 'on the day that the passover lambs were killed'. This, by GOD's commandment is the afternoon of the 14th Nisan. Then, Jesus sat down with the twelve and ate the passover. This is after sundown, the beginning of the 15th Nisan. That same night, he was betrayed and taken into custody. The next morning, still the 15th, He was taken to Pilate, then crucified, died and was buried before the beginning of the 16th Nisan at sundown. Before this sundown was the preparation (paraskeue) for the weekly sabbath, the 16th of Nisan. Then, He rose from the dead early on the 17th, which was the first day of the week.
There is not another day, and much less another two days(as some would have it) that can be pointed out in the chronological narratives.

If the chronological narrative of the gospels is true, then Matt 12:40 is a Hebraism, a Jewish idiom, which does not mean a literal 72 hours, but are parts of a three day period.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
genuineoriginal,

re: "No, Matthew 12:40 is only a problem for those that choose to ignore the cultural understanding of time when the Gospels were written..."


So to back up your assertion, how about providing an example from the time when the Gospels were written that shows a phrase stating a certain number of days and/or a certain number of nights for a period of time when the period absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?

Didn't you read the quote from Ignatius?

genuineoriginal,

re: "Didn't you read the quote from Ignatius?"


Indeed I did. What is your point?

Ignatius - Epistle to the Trallians: IX

On the day of the preparation, then, at the third hour, He received the sentence from Pilate, the Father permitting that to happen; at the sixth hour He was crucified; at the ninth hour He gave up the ghost; and before sunset He was buried. During the Sabbath He continued under the earth in the tomb in which Joseph of Arimathæa had laid Him. At the dawning of the Lord’s day He arose from the dead, according to what was spoken by Himself, “As Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly, so shall the Son of man also be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” The day of the preparation, then, comprises the passion; the Sabbath embraces the burial; the Lord’s Day contains the resurrection.​

The days we call Friday, Saturday, and Sunday are the three days and three nights, according to Ignatius.
 

rstrats

Active member
steko,

re: "...according to my use it would be the same as saying 'yesterday, such and such took place'."


And "yesterday" would be Saturday. So if Saturday was one day ago, then Friday would be two days ago, and Thursday would be three days ago and not Friday as you say in post #50.
 

rstrats

Active member
genuineoriginal,

re: "The days we call Friday, Saturday, and Sunday are the three days and three nights, according to Ignatius."

I don't see where Ignatius provides an example from the time when the Gospels were written or before which shows a phrase stating a certain number of days and/or a certain number of nights to be contained in a period of time when the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights.
 

Right Divider

Body part
steko,

re: "...according to my use it would be the same as saying 'yesterday, such and such took place'."


And "yesterday" would be Saturday. So if Saturday was one day ago, then Friday would be two days ago, and Thursday would be three days ago and not Friday as you say in post #50.
You're still not understanding the Hebrew idiom whereby any part of a day is a day. You're stuck on the 24 hour thing.
 

rstrats

Active member
Right Divider,

re: "You're still not understanding the Hebrew idiom whereby any part of a day is a day."

And I point out in post #9 that I agree, but that is not the issue for the purpose of the OP.


re: "You're stuck on the 24 hour thing."

Actually, you're the one that's stuck on the 24 hour thing. I've said nothing about 24 hours.
 

jamie

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We can go through the crucifixion, entombment, and resurrection of Jesus if you want. I'm game.
 

genuineoriginal

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genuineoriginal,

re: "The days we call Friday, Saturday, and Sunday are the three days and three nights, according to Ignatius."

I don't see where Ignatius provides an example from the time when the Gospels were written or before which shows a phrase stating a certain number of days and/or a certain number of nights to be contained in a period of time when the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights.

So, you don't see how a writer from the first century who states that Jesus died late on Friday, was in the grave all of Saturday, and rose early on Sunday uses the phrase "three days and three nights" when there are only two nights between Friday afternoon and Sunday morning?

Irregardless of whether it was an idiom or not, all the records from the first century about the crucifixion describe it as Jesus dying a Friday afternoon and Jesus rising on a Sunday morning.

The modern theory that Jesus really died on a Wednesday afternoon and rose on a Saturday afternoon is not supported by any historical documents.
 

jamie

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Irregardless of whether it was an idiom or not, all the records from the first century about the crucifixion describe it as Jesus dying a Friday afternoon and Jesus rising on a Sunday morning.

Do you know what the sign was that identified Jesus as being the Christ?
 

jamie

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There are more signs than one.

But He answered and said to them, "An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah.

"For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." (Matthew 12:39-40)​

When Jesus said no sign except..., how many more signs do you think he gave?
 

intojoy

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Banned
Lazarus first sign to "Israel"

Jesus second sign to "Israel"

Two Witnesses of Tribulation third sign to "Israel"
 

WoundedEgo

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But He answered and said to them, "An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah.

"For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." (Matthew 12:39-40)​

When Jesus said no sign except..., how many more signs do you think he gave?

The fact that the writers of the scriptures couldn't get their story straight on the resurrection is not a good sign.

Did Jesus die on the Passover or feast on the Passover?
 
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