steko,
re: "The third day counting backward from Sunday would be Friday like we say, 'Three days ago such and such took place.'"
If on the first day of the week, they said "One day ago such and such took place", to what day of the week would they be referring?
genuineoriginal,
re: "No, Matthew 12:40 is only a problem for those that choose to ignore the cultural understanding of time when the Gospels were written..."
So to back up your assertion, how about providing an example from the time when the Gospels were written that shows a phrase stating a certain number of days and/or a certain number of nights for a period of time when the period absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?
Didn't you read the quote from Ignatius?
genuineoriginal,
re: "Didn't you read the quote from Ignatius?"
Indeed I did. What is your point?
Ignatius - Epistle to the Trallians: IX
On the day of the preparation, then, at the third hour, He received the sentence from Pilate, the Father permitting that to happen; at the sixth hour He was crucified; at the ninth hour He gave up the ghost; and before sunset He was buried. During the Sabbath He continued under the earth in the tomb in which Joseph of Arimathæa had laid Him. At the dawning of the Lord’s day He arose from the dead, according to what was spoken by Himself, “As Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly, so shall the Son of man also be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” The day of the preparation, then, comprises the passion; the Sabbath embraces the burial; the Lord’s Day contains the resurrection.
You're still not understanding the Hebrew idiom whereby any part of a day is a day. You're stuck on the 24 hour thing.steko,
re: "...according to my use it would be the same as saying 'yesterday, such and such took place'."
And "yesterday" would be Saturday. So if Saturday was one day ago, then Friday would be two days ago, and Thursday would be three days ago and not Friday as you say in post #50.
You're still not understanding the Hebrew idiom whereby any part of a day is a day. You're stuck on the 24 hour thing.
Can you please show me a verse where that is used? You never give any references so that we can follow along.The Greek epiphosko proves you wrong.
Can you please show me a verse where that is used? You never give any references so that we can follow along.
Jesus died before Good Friday.
genuineoriginal,
re: "The days we call Friday, Saturday, and Sunday are the three days and three nights, according to Ignatius."
I don't see where Ignatius provides an example from the time when the Gospels were written or before which shows a phrase stating a certain number of days and/or a certain number of nights to be contained in a period of time when the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights.
Irregardless of whether it was an idiom or not, all the records from the first century about the crucifixion describe it as Jesus dying a Friday afternoon and Jesus rising on a Sunday morning.
Do you know what the sign was that identified Jesus as being the Christ?
There are more signs than one.
But He answered and said to them, "An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah.
"For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." (Matthew 12:39-40)
When Jesus said no sign except..., how many more signs do you think he gave?