An Elijah (my God is Jehovah) physically came.
(Mal 4:5 KJV) Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the Lord:
An Elijah (my God is Jehovah) physically came.
_So now it's "an" Elijah that physically came.
Luke 1 tells us that John the Baptist came "in the spirit and power" of Elijah.
No matter how much backpedaling you want to do, Elijah didn't literally come before Jesus came. Yet the prophecy was fulfilled.
Jesus later in His ministry made it clear that when the temple was destroyed, the other prophecies would be fulfilled.
Here is what you said:
I never said anything about "non-physical fulfillment". I said that not all the prophecies were fulfilled literally.
No matter how hard you try to spin it, the Malachi prophecy about Elijah was not fulfilled literally. It was fulfilled spiritually.
Does this mean you believe Jesus is synonymous to Israel?
This has nothing to do with your claim. Here is what you said:
Because the Pharisees expected to see them fulfilled in a physical/literal manner, it is why they couldn't see that John the Baptist was the fulfillment of Malachi. Nor could they see that Jesus was the Messiah.
Dispensationalists make the same mistakes the Pharisees made.
So many prophecies were fulfilled by Christ, but you and dispensationalists deny that they were fulfilled because they weren't literally fulfilled.
(Mal 4:5 KJV) Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the Lord:
Yep .... OF ELIJAH.Luke 1 tells us that John the Baptist came "in the spirit and power" of Elijah.
Jesus disagrees with you.No matter how much backpedaling you want to do, Elijah didn't literally come before Jesus came.
ROFL!I never said anything about "non-physical fulfillment". I said that not all the prophecies were fulfilled literally.
But there are still literal prophecies to be fulfilled.
Jesus said that Elijah would come first and restore all things. John the Baptist didn't do that. It is yet to be fulfilled.
Sure he did. He lived as a prophet and was caught up in a fiery chariot.
I think that he will come at a time which is near the second coming of Christ to the earth.
Certainly do and so do the scriptures.
It's there in the scriptures and though you have talked yourself out of believing it, you're not going to talk me out of believing what is plainly promised.
It will be.
Watch!
Me too.I believe that!
Yep .... OF ELIJAH.
Jesus disagrees with you.
How did John fulfill it without doing it in a real literal physical manner?
Was John not really there, but just floating around like a ghost or a vision?
I realize you just don't get it, Tet.Yes, and the last time I checked "Of Elijah" is not literally the same thing as "Elijah the prophet"
I believe the promises of God will be done is a real physical manner, just as the ones that have already been fulfilled were done.You just can't admit that the prophecy wasn't fulfilled literally like you claim prophecy has to be fulfilled.
Because you know if you do, then all your other prophecies that you claim are unfulfilled are open to the possibility of having been fulfilled spiritually, and this would ruin your dispensationalism.
Elijah must also come again, as the prophesy says that he will come before the great and terrible day of the Lord, and then all will be restored.
I realize you just don't get it, Tet.
Some will not.
Some would just like to believe that God will not do what He says He will do, except in some philosophical, Platonian type manner; but nothing will really physically happen.
Such is the way of preterists.
I believe the promises of God will be done is a real physical manner, just as the ones that have already been fulfilled were done.
:up:What I get is dispensationalism.
Dispensationalists think that every prophecy from the OT to Israel is unconditional and has to literally happen.
This is why you don't get it.
Now, here you have a real problem if you are honest with yourself.
If John is going to come back to the earth and do what you think he will do, how can he be lesser than the least in the kingdom of God?
Good point.
It's mind boggling that dispensationalists think that another Elijah is going to come again.
Even though Jesus said "Elijah has come", they have to claim Elijah has to come again.
This is what happens when someone tries to make the Bible fit dispensationalism.
Some would just like to believe that God will not do what He says He will do, except in some philosophical, Platonian type manner; but nothing will really physically happen.
Why? Because they did not seek it by faith[/B], but as it were, by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumbling stone.[/COLOR]
Israel has not obtain the righteousness it was seeking because they didn't seek it by faith. However, Paul explains that they could have found it. This would negate the two classes that the mads believe existed at the time.
Yep, I have brought this up before.
Paul clearly says that the Israelites sought righteousness by works instead of faith. This means that "works" was never a means of righteousness.
Yet the MADists/dispies claim that the Israelites had to perform works in addition to faith because of their misunderstanding of the following verse:
(Rom 11:6) And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then it is no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.
They think that "then is it no more of works" means that at one time it was by works.
Wrong.Tambora, you take the statement about what John would do - "restore all",
What I get is dispensationalism.
Dispensationalists think that every prophecy from the OT to Israel is unconditional and has to literally happen.
This is why you don't get it.
Let's look at another prophecy that was fulfilled, but not literally and not physically.
(John 7:38 KJV) He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
In the above verse, Jesus refers to an OT prophecy because Jesus says "as the scripture hath said".
Here is the OT verse that Jesus is referring to:
(Zech 14:8 KJV) And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be.
Dispensationalists claim that Zech 14:8 means that literal waters will literally flow from literal Jerusalem into the Mediterranean Sea and the Dead Sea.
But that's not how the prophecy was fulfilled. Jesus says that the prophecy is fulfilled by each person who believes in Him. Furthermore, Jesus says that the living waters flow out of each believers belly.
Obviously there isn't literal waters that literally flow out of literal bellies.
So Tambora, as we see, the prophecy was fulfilled spiritually, non-literally, non-physical.
Explain living waters flowing out of one's belly into the Hinder Sea and the Former Sea?