Lord, Lord, Didn't We?...
Mr. Pate has stated and verified that he believes every time John used the word "world", it means every person who has ever lived. So I brought up this passage
Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him. For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.”
**1 John *2:15-17 *KJV
and asked how he understands it in light of his narrow definition. He refused to answer, but instead issued a common insult when he knows he cannot answer and support his theology. So I thought I'd help and examine this passage in light of his narrow definition.
Love not all the people who ever lived, neither the things that are in all the people who ever lived. If any man love all the people who ever lived, the love of the Father is not in him. For all that is in all the people who ever lived, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of all the people who ever lived. And all the people who ever lived passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.”
**1 John *2:15-17 *RPV
I hope this demonstrates that "world" has multiple definitions.