John 20:28 and the Trinity

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Apple7,

Locating The Trinity in Isaiah is never an issue....once you know what to look for.
The key is in knowing the Names, Titles and epithets Yahweh uses throughout the entire book.
Once you familiarize yourself with the terms that God uses to describe Himself, it really becomes a very straight forward endeavor to locate His Triune nature.
Most people miss it entirely, modern day Jews most certainly did....and other cults, such as yours, likewise are blinded.
My best advice to you is to study the 1,000+ names, titles and epithets used of God in scripture and then you will view scripture in an entirely new light...

One of the early studies that we were given as Young People was the Name Yahweh and Titles of God. We were encouraged to mark our Bibles to distinguish between Elohim and El by marking the occurrences of El with a colour. We were also taught that Yahweh is “I will be ” and this is contrary to your post in the other thread that it is “I Am” and the popular view that you present that Jesus is quoting or alluding to the LXX of Exodus 3:14 in John 8:58 is incorrect. Also it is important to recognise that Elohim is also used for the Angels and Judges, often misunderstood and bypassed by Trinitarians Psalm 8:5, Exodus 21:6. So, yes, the examination of the Yahweh Name and these titles is important, but it seems that you use these to support your Trinitarian bias.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[Apple7]

We were also taught that Yahweh is “I will be ” and this is contrary to your post in the other thread that it is “I Am”

Go back and read it again, for the first time, Trevor.

You are attempting to blend different posts into one idea...

and the popular view that you present that Jesus is quoting or alluding to the LXX of Exodus 3:14 in John 8:58 is incorrect.

Don't just say it; defend it.

Also it is important to recognise that Elohim is also used for the Angels and Judges, often misunderstood and bypassed by Trinitarians Psalm 8:5, Exodus 21:6. So, yes, the examination of the Yahweh Name and these titles is important, but it seems that you use these to support your Trinitarian bias.

Kind regards
Trevor

Still hung-up on this entry-level polemic of yours, Trev?

Any serious student of scripture is already cognizant that the meaning of elohim depends upon context.

What does elohim mean when juxtaposed to Yahweh?

That's right....case closed.....again....and again...and again...

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Apple7,

We were also taught that Yahweh is “I will be ” and this is contrary to your post in the other thread that it is “I Am”

Go back and read it again, for the first time, Trevor.
You are attempting to blend different posts into one idea...

The Hebrew of Exo 3.14 has Yahweh saying ‘I AM’ (ehyeh) three separate times.

Don't just say it; defend it.

If Exodus 3:14 is “I will be” as per Tyndale, RV and RSV margins, then there is no direct link with John 8:58, one a future tense, the other a present tense.

Still hung-up on this entry-level polemic of yours, Trev? Any serious student of scripture is already cognizant that the meaning of elohim depends upon context. What does elohim mean when juxtaposed to Yahweh? That's right....case closed.....again....and again...and again...

Yes, context is important. Yahweh Elohim may in some contexts have a wider meaning than you will admit. It could sometimes indicate that God the Father will be revealed through his Agents.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[NWL]

How Titus 1:14, Psalms 49:7 or any other scripture express that Jesus needed to be "God" for the ransom to mean something?"

let me repost the scripture that tells us plainly that ONLY God can pay the ransom...

A man cannot at all ransom a brother, nor give to God a ransom for him, for the ransom of their soul is precious, and it ceases forever, (Psalm 49.7 – 8); but God will ransom my soul from the grave. (Psalm 49.15)

Is Psalm 49 clear enough for you?

If not, then this is what you need to do...

Write three to four paragraphs declaring your disbelief, surprise and utter contempt for this passage, and then elaborate on your feelings for me, again, and then change the subject matter.

Ball is now in your court...

Where in the verses you provided does it express Jesus needed to be God for the ransom to mean anything or that God was the ransom as I asked, it doesn't. Please show me exactly where it states as such as I'm struggling to find where Psalm 49:7,8,15 states such a thing. I can see where is states "God will yip̄deh my soul from the power of Sheol" but nothing about God being a ransom. It should be obvious that picking the word "ransom" over "redeem", as you have done which is of no surprise, as the translation of yip̄deh is where your issue lies. Firstly, as I have stated the Psalms 49:15 does not say God is the ransom, but rather, God will "God will redeem my soul", God redeeming someone from a place is very different from God being a ransom.

How do we know the word should be understood as "redeem" and not "ransom" as you conveniently choose, I'll explain why. We know according to scripture that the ransom was paid once for all time, "For the death that he died, he died with reference to sin once for all time" (Romans 6:10), , yet we see that God has yip̄deh(or other derivative) people (redeemed/ransomed), many times according to scripture.

(Deut 15:15) "Remember that you were slaves in Egypt and the LORD your God redeemed/ransomed/wayyip̄dəḵā you."

Jesus, who you say was God, had to come to earth as a man to ransom himself in the NT, yet we see in scripture that God ransomed before but for whatever reason didn't need to come to earth as a man (according to you), this is not consistent with the entire NT of Jesus death and ransom. There has only been one ransom, and that was at Jesus death. God has redeemed people before and will redeem people from the grave the same way he redeemed people from Egypt.

Your translation of the verse does not make sense, God cannot ransom someone from something without implying the person was the thing being ransomed, take Psalms 45:15 and Deut 15:15 as examples.

To say "Remember that you were slaves in Egypt and YHWH your God ransomed you" would imply the nation Israel were the ransom (not in the sense of Jesus being the ransom), this makes no sense. But if we understand it as "YHWH your God redeemed you" it makes perfect sense, hence why translations render it this way. The same goes for Palms 49:15, "God will ransom me from the power of the Grave" implies that sinful man is the ransom, this again makes no sense, but "God will redeem me from the power of the Grave" does, since it implies a saving act by God. You have cherry picked ransom over redeem despite it making no sense when reading it.

Your quotation of Psalms 49:7,8, what translations are you using? I've never seen scholarly work that translates it the way you have shown it. There was only three results on google matching the phrase "A man cannot at all ransom a brother" and it was you making it on this forum, a bit suspect. You abnormally change yip̄deh to mean ransom which causes a double statement which makes no sense, please share the translation you're using. Most translations render Psalms 49:7,8 this way:

(Psalms 45:7,8) "..No one can redeem another or give to God a ransom for them, the ransom for a life is costly, no payment is ever enough.."

Your translation "..A man cannot at all ransom a brother, nor give to God a ransom for him, for the ransom of their soul is precious, and it ceases forever..".

This verse shows that the ransom is owed to God, why else would the bible writer refer to the ransom being given to God. Thus God is not the ransom since it is to him the ransom is owed.

 

[Apple7]

Greetings again Apple7,
If Exodus 3:14 is “I will be” as per Tyndale, RV and RSV margins, then there is no direct link with John 8:58, one a future tense, the other a present tense.

Show us the Hebrew term in question...

Yes, context is important. Yahweh Elohim may in some contexts have a wider meaning than you will admit. It could sometimes indicate that God the Father will be revealed through his Agents.

Kind regards
Trevor

Show us some examples of these 'wider' meanings...

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Apple7,

Show us the Hebrew term in question...

I am not proficient in writing and discussing in Hebrew, but I will give my understanding using the word “Ehyeh” as the word translated in Exodus 3:14 as “I AM” in the KJV and also in many other translations. The following is my explanation of “Ehyeh” and “Yahweh”:

The Yahweh Name – Initial Declaration and Fulfilment
The following is a consideration of the Yahweh Name that was revealed in Exodus 3:14. It is hoped that the following comments will help to explain some of the language of both the OT and NT and the true role of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God.

The Name of God was revealed to Moses in the following terms:
Exodus 3:14-15 (KJV): 14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. 15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Most translations and commentators accept the present tense “I am that I am”, but notice in the margin of the RV (or ASV) and RSV, an alternative is given “I will be that I will be” or “I will be what I will be”, showing that some modern scholars suggest this alternative reading. Although not popular it appears that this future tense is the correct translation. Not only modern scholars, Tyndale also translated this in the future tense.
Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.

The word “ehyeh” in Exodus 3:14 is the same in the earlier statement in v12, and here the translators give the future tense:
Exodus 3:12 (KJV): And he said, Certainly I will be with thee; and this shall be a token unto thee, that I have sent thee: When thou hast brought forth the people out of Egypt, ye shall serve God upon this mountain.
Not only does this fix the tense, it also introduces the concept that the Name of God is also associated with some future activity.

This future tense and future activity was to be God acting to deliver Israel out of Egypt, so that Israel would become a people for His Name. They would be a living witness to the purpose of God, and a witness to the existence of God. The following passage emphasises this future work in delivering Israel with the future aspect of the Name:
Exodus 6:1-8 (KJV): 1 Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH (or Yahweh) was I not known to them. 4 And I have also established my covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land of their pilgrimage, wherein they were strangers. 5 And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel, whom the Egyptians keep in bondage; and I have remembered my covenant. 6 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: 7 And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians. 8 And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning the which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it you for an heritage: I am the LORD.

When Israel was delivered out of Egypt the Name of God remains the same, but the particular activity has been accomplished:
Exodus 15:1-3 (KJV): 1 Then sang Moses and the children of Israel this song unto the LORD, and spake, saying, I will sing unto the LORD, for he hath triumphed gloriously: the horse and his rider hath he thrown into the sea. 2 The LORD is my strength and song, and he is become my salvation: he is my God, and I will prepare him an habitation; my father’s God, and I will exalt him. 3 The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name.
The future tense of God’s Name “He will be or become” has been accomplished, and Yahweh had become Israel’s salvation. The Yahweh Name is incorporated in the Name Jesus, speaking of God's Salvation in and through His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God.

We had our Bible Class on Isaiah 45, and there are a number of layers. The prophecy concerning Cyrus was significant as it was given 150 years before his appearance on the scene, and it also speaks of how he would conquer Babylon by opening the gates of the city, and he would “loose the loins” of Belshazzar. Cyrus would be raised up to release Israel from captivity, and this would be evidence that the God of Israel is the Creator, and Cyrus was only a small portion of God’s overall plan and purpose in freeing Israel. Many modern theologians reject this significant prophecy and claim that this must have been the product of a Second Isaiah, as if God could not know the future. Also, the Yahweh Name occurs frequently throughout this chapter, and it is not there to teach the Trinity as you claim, but it is again in the future tense “He who will be”, speaking of God’s future activity and purpose, not only concerning Israel, but also the whole earth. Cyrus as the anointed and shepherd of God is only a type of the Greater Shepherd and Anointed of Yahweh God the Father, our Lord Jesus Christ the Son of God, through whom God’s purpose will be fulfilled to bring the whole earth to bow before His Throne, to the glory of God the Father, Isaiah 45:23, Philippians 2:10-11.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[Apple7]

Where in the verses you provided does it express Jesus needed to be God for the ransom to mean anything or that God was the ransom as I asked, it doesn't. Please show me exactly where it states as such as I'm struggling to find where Psalm 49:7,8,15 states such a thing. I can see where is states "God will yip̄deh my soul from the power of Sheol" but nothing about God being a ransom. It should be obvious that picking the word "ransom" over "redeem", as you have done which is of no surprise, as the translation of yip̄deh is where your issue lies. Firstly, as I have stated the Psalms 49:15 does not say God is the ransom, but rather, God will "God will redeem my soul", God redeeming someone from a place is very different from God being a ransom.

Psalm 49 uses THREE separate Hebrew words for 'ransom', stating, very plainly, that man is unable to ransom another person, himself, nor is man able to provide a ransom to God for another man.

Psalm 49 makes it clear that ONLY God is capable of providing the ransom required to rescue a person's soul.

How is this escaping your intellect?

 

[Apple7]

How do we know the word should be understood as "redeem" and not "ransom" as you conveniently choose, I'll explain why.

First of all, there are THREE DIFFERENT Hebrew words rendered as 'ransom' in Psalm 49...NOT one, as you ignorantly claim.

Secondly, ANY lexicon will provide the definition of 'ransom'...thus, effectively removing your jaded worldview from clouding the picture.

Please pick up the pace, lazy JW...

 

[Apple7]

We know according to scripture that the ransom was paid once for all time, "For the death that he died, he died with reference to sin once for all time" (Romans 6:10), ,

Where is the word 'ransom'...?

yet we see that God has yip̄deh(or other derivative) people (redeemed/ransomed), many times according to scripture.

(Deut 15:15) "Remember that you were slaves in Egypt and the LORD your God redeemed/ransomed/wayyip̄dəḵā you."

You just answered your very own question!

Who provides the RANSOM for people?

That's right, God.

Now what excuse are you going to use, witness?

 

[Apple7]

Jesus, who you say was God, had to come to earth as a man to ransom himself in the NT, yet we see in scripture that God ransomed before but for whatever reason didn't need to come to earth as a man (according to you), this is not consistent with the entire NT of Jesus death and ransom. There has only been one ransom, and that was at Jesus death. God has redeemed people before and will redeem people from the grave the same way he redeemed people from Egypt.

Firstly, scripture mandates that Jesus is God.

You already readily confirmed this as fact long ago, and you have no issue with it, so now is not the time to backpedal.

Secondly, you already admitted, and proved with a scriptural example, that ONLY GOD can provide the RANSOM required for His people, in fact, you say that God repeatedly provides a RANSOM for His people....and yet, you still somehow have an issue with it?

Come on...start using your head...

 

[Apple7]

Your quotation of Psalms 49:7,8, what translations are you using? I've never seen scholarly work that translates it the way you have shown it. There was only three results on google matching the phrase "A man cannot at all ransom a brother" and it was you making it on this forum, a bit suspect.

Sweet.

Thanks for admitting what ALL JW's do when researching scripture is to google a response.

Chuck would be so very proud of you.....yes?

 

[Apple7]

You abnormally change yip̄deh to mean ransom which causes a double statement which makes no sense, please share the translation you're using. Most translations render Psalms 49:7,8 this way:

(Psalms 45:7,8) "..No one can redeem another or give to God a ransom for them, the ransom for a life is costly, no payment is ever enough.."

Your translation "..A man cannot at all ransom a brother, nor give to God a ransom for him, for the ransom of their soul is precious, and it ceases forever..".

This verse shows that the ransom is owed to God, why else would the bible writer refer to the ransom being given to God. Thus God is not the ransom since it is to him the ransom is owed.

The best quality time you have to represent your faith is to repeatedly google for a reply?

Looks like google FORGOT to tell you that there are THREE DIFFERENT Hebrew words rendered as ransom in that passage.

If it wasn't for me, you would forever be thinking that it was the same ONE word used THREE times.


And...no, this passage does NOT show that a ransom is OWED to God.

On the contrary, it clearly mandates that ONLY God can provide the ransom!


Get a grip, and a brain...

 

[Apple7]

Greetings again Apple7, I am not proficient in writing and discussing in Hebrew, but I will give my understanding using the word “Ehyeh” as the word translated in Exodus 3:14 as “I AM” in the KJV and also in many other translations. The following is my explanation of “Ehyeh” and “Yahweh”:

The Yahweh Name – Initial Declaration and Fulfilment
The following is a consideration of the Yahweh Name that was revealed in Exodus 3:14. It is hoped that the following comments will help to explain some of the language of both the OT and NT and the true role of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God.

The Name of God was revealed to Moses in the following terms:
Exodus 3:14-15 (KJV): 14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. 15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.


Kind regards
Trevor

Fact is, Yahweh is God's personal name, and it was not revealed in Exo 3.14.

Exo 3.15 declares God's personal name, Yahweh.

 

[Apple7]

Most translations and commentators accept the present tense “I am that I am”, but notice in the margin of the RV (or ASV) and RSV, an alternative is given “I will be that I will be” or “I will be what I will be”, showing that some modern scholars suggest this alternative reading. Although not popular it appears that this future tense is the correct translation. Not only modern scholars, Tyndale also translated this in the future tense.
Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.

The word “ehyeh” in Exodus 3:14 is the same in the earlier statement in v12, and here the translators give the future tense:
Exodus 3:12 (KJV): And he said, Certainly I will be with thee; and this shall be a token unto thee, that I have sent thee: When thou hast brought forth the people out of Egypt, ye shall serve God upon this mountain.
Not only does this fix the tense, it also introduces the concept that the Name of God is also associated with some future activity.

This future tense and future activity was to be God acting to deliver Israel out of Egypt, so that Israel would become a people for His Name. They would be a living witness to the purpose of God, and a witness to the existence of God. The following passage emphasises this future work in delivering Israel with the future aspect of the Name:
Exodus 6:1-8 (KJV): 1 Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH (or Yahweh) was I not known to them. 4 And I have also established my covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land of their pilgrimage, wherein they were strangers. 5 And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel, whom the Egyptians keep in bondage; and I have remembered my covenant. 6 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: 7 And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians. 8 And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning the which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it you for an heritage: I am the LORD.


Kind regards
Trevor

You seem very confused, Trev.

Did you even know that אֶהְיֶה is an imperfect verb to begin with?

 

[Apple7]

When Israel was delivered out of Egypt the Name of God remains the same, but the particular activity has been accomplished:
Exodus 15:1-3 (KJV): 1 Then sang Moses and the children of Israel this song unto the LORD, and spake, saying, I will sing unto the LORD, for he hath triumphed gloriously: the horse and his rider hath he thrown into the sea. 2 The LORD is my strength and song, and he is become my salvation: he is my God, and I will prepare him an habitation; my father’s God, and I will exalt him. 3 The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name.

Kind regards
Trevor

Really, Trev?

Yahweh is a man?

The more you post, the more your theology is utterly destroyed!

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Apple7,

Fact is, Yahweh is God's personal name, and it was not revealed in Exo 3.14.
Exo 3.15 declares God's personal name, Yahweh.

I understand “Ehyeh” “I will be” to be God’s Name in the 1st Person singular and also expanded to state “I will be who or that I will be” while “Yahweh” “He will be” and is God’s Name in the 3rd Person singular. I thought that you would understand this with your language skills. All of this shows that the Name of God has a meaning, an exposition in its context.

You seem very confused, Trev.
Did you even know that אֶהְיֶה is an imperfect verb to begin with?

Yes, and I understand that this is best translated as a future tense in this context, not as a present tense. What were you taught when you learnt Hebrew, or have you forgotten this? How would you translate “ehyeh” in Exodus 3:12, the immediate context of Exodus 3:14? And why is the Name Yahweh associated in Exodus 6:1-8 with Yahweh's future activity in bringing Israel out of Egypt and bringing them into the land?

Really, Trev? Yahweh is a man? The more you post, the more your theology is utterly destroyed!

Are you rejecting what it says? This is figurative language describing God’s victory over the army of the Egyptians, which God had drowned in the depths of the sea. How does your theology explain Exodus 15:3 (KJV): The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name. in the context of the destruction of the Egyptian army?

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[Apple7]

Please invite your CULT 'teachers' to come to this forum...

Please invite your CULT 'teachers' to come to this forum...

Greetings again Apple7, I understand “Ehyeh” “I will be” to be God’s Name in the 1st Person singular and also expanded to state “I will be who or that I will be” while “Yahweh” “He will be” and is God’s Name in the 3rd Person singular.

Is cannabis legal in your country, Trev?

'Ehyeh' is an imperfect VERB, not a noun, and is NOT God's personal name.

'Yahweh' is a proper noun, and is God's personal Name.

I thought that you would understand this with your language skills. All of this shows that the Name of God has a meaning, an exposition in its context. Yes, and I understand that this is best translated as a future tense in this context, not as a present tense. What were you taught when you learnt Hebrew, or have you forgotten this?

Why don't you provide a verifiable reference for what you were taught?

Not that you ever do, or ever could...but try...

How would you translate “ehyeh” in Exodus 3:12, the immediate context of Exodus 3:14? And why is the Name Yahweh associated in Exodus 6:1-8 with Yahweh's future activity in bringing Israel out of Egypt and bringing them into the land?

Do you even know what an imperfect verb is, Trev?

Are you rejecting what it says? This is figurative language describing God’s victory over the army of the Egyptians, which God had drowned in the depths of the sea. How does your theology explain Exodus 15:3 (KJV): The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name. in the context of the destruction of the Egyptian army?

Kind regards
Trevor

'Figurative language'?

Hardly.

Yahweh is a Man of war; Yahweh is His name. (Exo 15.3)

The formula, ‘ish milhamah’, ‘Man of War’, is a human attribute, as witnessed throughout scripture, as thus…

• Machir, the first-born of Manasseh, was ‘ish milhamah’. (Joshua 17.1)

• The son of Jesse, was ‘ish milhamah’. (1 Sam 16.18)

• The Philistine was ‘ish milhamah’. (1 Sam 17.33)

• His father was ‘ish milhamah’. (2 Sam 17.8)

• Yahweh is going to remove ‘ish milhamah’. (Isa 3.2)


From scriptural usage, alone, we can clearly see that ‘Man of War’, (ish milhamah), does indeed apply to humanity in all locations outside of Exo 15.3….thus, the only logical conclusion that can be drawn when the same phrase is applied to Yahweh, is that Yahweh was in human form in the OT.


Give it up, Trev...

 

[SabathMoon]

Looking at the LXX, Andros is not used, which would be male human being. The Hebrew, in this case, is less monotheistic than the LXX

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Apple7,

Is cannabis legal in your country, Trev?
'Ehyeh' is an imperfect VERB, not a noun, and is NOT God's personal name. 'Yahweh' is a proper noun, and is God's personal Name. Why don't you provide a verifiable reference for what you were taught?
Not that you ever do, or ever could...but try...

I appreciate your suggestions here, but you seem to be avoiding the close connection between “Ehyeh” “I will be or become” or “I who will be” Exodus 3:14 and “Yahweh” “He will be or become” or “He who will be” Exodus 3:15.

Do you even know what an imperfect verb is, Trev?

I am not very proficient at Hebrew tenses, but I understand that Hebrew imperfect has the concept of an incomplete action and thus in some contexts this can be understood as a future tense.

'Figurative language'? Hardly. Yahweh is a Man of war; Yahweh is His name. (Exo 15.3)
The formula, ‘ish milhamah’, ‘Man of War’, is a human attribute, as witnessed throughout scripture, as thus…
From scriptural usage, alone, we can clearly see that ‘Man of War’, (ish milhamah), does indeed apply to humanity in all locations outside of Exo 15.3….thus, the only logical conclusion that can be drawn when the same phrase is applied to Yahweh, is that Yahweh was in human form in the OT.
Give it up, Trev...

If I could make a parallel, Yahweh God the Father was also David’s Shepherd. Did God the Father descend to Bethlehem and assume a shepherd outfit, possibly a skin for clothing, and a quiver with arrows. Did David one day venture out and sit down in green pastures with Yahweh as his Shepherd?

Please invite your CULT 'teachers' to come to this forum

My main teachers on this subject are no longer alive. One in the 1860s wrote extensively on the subject of God Manifestation. I was introduced to this subject in a systematic way at a YP’s weekend when I was 19, and the speaker helped me in succeeding years, as well as another one of our expositors. These three have now passed off the scene. I have access to a copy of a thorough forum discussion on the “Understanding of the Yahweh Name”, and the member taught the future aspect of the Yahweh Name, and this was with some strong opposition, including the concept of "I AM". He had been a Bible language student and possibly reached the level of what you could call a scholar. He is alive and holds the same understanding of the future aspects of the Yahweh Name. He has in the past been active on another forum, sometimes in the language section. I rely and have relied on him for some affirmation of my understanding.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[NWL]

The best quality time you have to represent your faith is to repeatedly google for a reply?

Looks like google FORGOT to tell you that there are THREE DIFFERENT Hebrew words rendered as ransom in that passage.

If it wasn't for me, you would forever be thinking that it was the same ONE word used THREE times.


And...no, this passage does NOT show that a ransom is OWED to God.

On the contrary, it clearly mandates that ONLY God can provide the ransom!


Get a grip, and a brain...

So instead of admitting you formulated your own translation to try and make the scriptures express what you want them to mean you falsely claim I googled my answer.

You say "no, this passage does NOT show that a ransom is OWED to God", does Psalms 49:7,8 say that no man can "give to God a ransom"?

According to the verse why can man not pay the ransom to God?

Does the below verse infer that if a man could pay for himself/another that they would "live on forever and not see decay"?

(Psalms 45:7,8) "..No one can redeem another or give to God a ransom for them, the ransom for a life is costly, no payment is ever enough, so that they should live on forever and not see decay..."