Jesus is God

[achduke]

Here are 2 claims Jesus made to suggest he was god.

John 8:58

58 "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"

The Father Dwells in Jesus and Jesus says it is the Father speaking.

John 10:30

30 I and the Father are one."

Jesus is the temple of God. God dwells in Jesus.

31 Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?" 33 "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God." 34 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods' ? 35 If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken-- 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'? 37 Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. 38 But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.

Jesus did not claim to be God here. That is just what they accused him of. He said he is God's son.

 

[God's Truth]

So what? Was Jesus saved by works of the law?

Why do you say so what about Jesus? No human is sinless. Jesus is no mere man. Jesus is God in the flesh.

Jesus remained in God's love by obeying Him.

John 15:10 If you obey my commandments, you will remain in my love, just as I have obeyed my Father's commandments and remain in his love.

 

[God's Truth]

Most of the stories related in the Bible is god speaking to prophets and they retelling the message. So there is a selection bias apparent here. What is even worse. In a court of law all that would be considered hearsay which is regarded with low reliability.
In fact hearing voices and seeing godly figures are associated with hallucinations.
Why would god resort to hallucinogenic experiences to relay his messages? Will legalizing pot enhance those Christian experience?

If you want to know if what Jesus said was true or not, get his teachings and obey them, then you will know.

John 7:17 Anyone who chooses to do the will of God will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.

 

[Harikrishna]

If you want to know if what Jesus said was true or not, get his teachings and obey them, then you will know.

John 7:17 Anyone who chooses to do the will of God will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.

But John was the last gospel writer and the gospel of John differs drastically from the other 3 gospels. He also write the book of revelations where God spoke to him. In short he was one of the disciples suffering from hallucination.

 

[keypurr]

All I have to say to you Pierac is "What sayeth the Scripture?" Who is the First and the Last in Revelation 1:17?

He just told you BR.

Sometimes he sounds like a bull in the China shop but his words make a lot of sense. Maybe we can send him to Diplomat school so you will listen to him.

 

[keypurr]

But John was the last gospel write and the gospel of John differs drastically from the other 3 gospels. He also write the book of revelations where God spoke to him. In short he was one of the disciples suffering from hallucination.

Your just as mixed up as the main stream churches.

 

[keypurr]

The Father Dwells in Jesus and Jesus says it is the Father speaking.

Jesus is the temple of God. God dwells in Jesus.

Jesus did not claim to be God here. That is just what they accused him of. He said he is God's son.

Welcome to TOL achduke.

I think Jesus was possessed by the express image of God, Christ, a spirit. Jesus NEVER said he was God. But the Christ in him did exist before the world was created.

 

[Daniel1611]

Welcome to TOL achduke.

I think Jesus was possessed by the express image of God, Christ, a spirit. Jesus NEVER said he was God. But the Christ in him did exist before the world was created.

"I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty"
-Revelation 1:8

Jesus Christ called himself the Almighty. That's just one of the verses that says Jesus is God. But if the Bible says something once it is true, so that's all that's needed. Jesus Christ is God and he claimed to be God. He claimed to be the voice of the burning bush.

 

[God's Truth]

But John was the last gospel write and the gospel of John differs drastically from the other 3 gospels. He also write the book of revelations where God spoke to him. In short he was one of the disciples suffering from hallucination.

What difference does your uneducated opinion make? If you want to know if the scriptures are true, then do what Jesus says.


John 7:17 Anyone who chooses to do the will of God will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.

 

[Grosnick Marowbe]

Welcome to TOL achduke.

I think Jesus was possessed by the express image of God, Christ, a spirit. Jesus NEVER said he was God. But the Christ in him did exist before the world was created.

You have an "ODD" way of looking at things that are Spiritually discerned!

 

[Elia]

Bs'd

The Tanach, for the Christians the OT, teaches very clearly that there is only ONE God, and that is Y-H-W-H.

People who want to look that over in detail can look here: https://sites.google.com/site/777mountzion/god-of-israel

So if anybody wants to say that Christ was God, or divine, than he has no choice than to say that Christ was Y-H-W-H, because there simply is no other God than Y-H-W-H.

But then you encounter the following problems:

If anybody says Christ is the same as Y-H-W-H then you are stuck with the fact that Y-H-W-H is his own son and at the same time his own father.


Then you are stuck with the fact that when Christ prays to his father, Y-H-W-H is praying to himself.


Luke 22:41-42: “and He knelt down and began to pray, saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."

So here Y-H-W-H has a different will than himself???


Even in heaven Christ is subjected to the Father, according to Corinthians 15:28, Matthew 20:23, Fillipens 2:9, and others.

So Y-H-W-H is subjected to himself???


When Christ was hanging at the cross, he cried out: “My God, my God, why did you forsake me?” Matthew 27:46

So Y-H-W-H forsook himself???


Collossians 3:1; “set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God.”

Y-H-W-H is sitting at his own right hand???


Y-H-W-H died at the cross, slaughtered by his own creatures?

If so, who resurrected him?


Remember there is only one God: Y-H-W-H who IS one.

By now it should be clear to everybody that it is IMPOSSIBLE that Christ was or is God.

And from that we learn that Christians who worship Christ are idol worshipers.

For more information why Christ was not God and not the messiah, look here: http://MountZion.notlong.com

 

[genuineoriginal]

"I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty"
-Revelation 1:8

Jesus Christ called himself the Almighty.

Did Isaiah called himself the first and the last?

Isaiah 44:6 6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.​

Or did Jesus relay the words of the Father?

Revelation 1:8 8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.​

Maybe Jesus was not speaking His own words about Himself.

John 12:49 49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.​

 

[Pierac]

All I have to say to you Pierac is "What sayeth the Scripture?" Who is the First and the Last in Revelation 1:17?

First and last of what? In Revelation 1:17... :readthis:

Obama could say this... and It would not make him to be the God you think him to be... Even with his Nobel peace prize...

Trust me... Obama is "the First and the Last" ... But that don't make him God!!!

What... now all of the sudden words don't mean anything?

Because Jesus Has A GOD... Not just "GOD the Father"... But an actual GOD! Silly child.... One can not be God and then claim to have one... Jesus not only claims to have one... but He teaches and (Preaches) about Him!!! :think:



oly::sherlock:
Paul

 

[Pierac]

The chart is self-explanatory for anyone who verifies the verse references for himself, which you have not done.

Prove the chart wrong. Choose any area of corresponding sectors from top and bottom of the chart. You pick...do one or do them all. Show that the verses do not correspond and so do not show what the chart says they show.

That's the only way you can prove you're correct.

You speak as a child... to say "The chart is self-explanatory "

Then explain it.... you Spiritual Sissy... each:

Let's go with John "I Am" on your wheel of the traditions of men!!! :thumb:

Grab your ankles and get ready for a spiritual beating across your back side... the one with a spine!

KJV Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Now we shall read the same verse from the Greek Septuagint

Septuagint Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην [εγω ειμι ο ων] και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ [ο ων] απεσταλκεν με προς υμας
Note the two separate Greek words used for 'am'

Concordant Literal Version Exo 3:14 Then Elohim spoke to Moses: I shall come to be just as I am coming to be. And He said: Thus shall you say to the sons of Israel, I-Shall-Come-to-Be has sent me to you.

Now when translated literally you get a whole different look. What happened to the other I am's?

The Hebrew Bible uses the word (hâyâh H1961) in the place of "Am" which is a verb meaning to exist, to be.
Check the Strongs' number.

Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?

But what about the great classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"?
Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

Now here is something very obvious that they never told you in your church. This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not “I am is the one speaking to you!”

In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply “Before Abraham was born, I am he,” that is, "I am the Messiah."
Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."

The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus’ claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.

Jesus, NEVER claimed to be God!

:maxi:
Paul

 

[oatmeal]

Bs'd

The Tanach, for the Christians the OT, teaches very clearly that there is only ONE God, and that is Y-H-W-H.

People who want to look that over in detail can look here: https://sites.google.com/site/777mountzion/god-of-israel

So if anybody wants to say that Christ was God, or divine, than he has no choice than to say that Christ was Y-H-W-H, because there simply is no other God than Y-H-W-H.

But then you encounter the following problems:

If anybody says Christ is the same as Y-H-W-H then you are stuck with the fact that Y-H-W-H is his own son and at the same time his own father.


Then you are stuck with the fact that when Christ prays to his father, Y-H-W-H is praying to himself.


Luke 22:41-42: “and He knelt down and began to pray, saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."

So here Y-H-W-H has a different will than himself???


Even in heaven Christ is subjected to the Father, according to Corinthians 15:28, Matthew 20:23, Fillipens 2:9, and others.

So Y-H-W-H is subjected to himself???


When Christ was hanging at the cross, he cried out: “My God, my God, why did you forsake me?” Matthew 27:46

So Y-H-W-H forsook himself???


Collossians 3:1; “set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God.”

Y-H-W-H is sitting at his own right hand???


Y-H-W-H died at the cross, slaughtered by his own creatures?

If so, who resurrected him?


Remember there is only one God: Y-H-W-H who IS one.

By now it should be clear to everybody that it is IMPOSSIBLE that Christ was or is God.

And from that we learn that Christians who worship Christ are idol worshipers.

For more information why Christ was not God and not the messiah, look here: http://MountZion.notlong.com

In order to "believe" in a trinity, all scriptural logic must be ignored.

What a dismal spiritual state to be in.

Likewise, when anyone believes that Jesus Christ is not the anointed one sent by God.

 

[Harikrishna]

What difference does your uneducated opinion make? If you want to know if the scriptures are true, then do what Jesus says.


John 7:17 Anyone who chooses to do the will of God will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.

Actually there is a better way to find out if the scriptures are true. It is called Christian Textual Criticism. You can also try reading educated Christian scholars instead of unsupported Christian doctrine passed down from the dark ages.

 

[oatmeal]

You speak as a child... to say "The chart is self-explanatory "

Then explain it.... you Spiritual Sissy... each:

Let's go with John "I Am" on your wheel of the traditions of men!!! :thumb:

Grab your ankles and get ready for a spiritual beating across your back side... the one with a spine!

KJV Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Now we shall read the same verse from the Greek Septuagint

Septuagint Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην [εγω ειμι ο ων] και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ [ο ων] απεσταλκεν με προς υμας
Note the two separate Greek words used for 'am'

Concordant Literal Version Exo 3:14 Then Elohim spoke to Moses: I shall come to be just as I am coming to be. And He said: Thus shall you say to the sons of Israel, I-Shall-Come-to-Be has sent me to you.

Now when translated literally you get a whole different look. What happened to the other I am's?

The Hebrew Bible uses the word (hâyâh H1961) in the place of "Am" which is a verb meaning to exist, to be.
Check the Strongs' number.

Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?

But what about the great classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"?
Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

Now here is something very obvious that they never told you in your church. This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not “I am is the one speaking to you!”

In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply “Before Abraham was born, I am he,” that is, "I am the Messiah."
Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."

The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus’ claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.

Jesus, NEVER claimed to be God!

:maxi:
Paul

Good work!

 

[oatmeal]

Did Isaiah called himself the first and the last?

Isaiah 44:6 6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.​

Or did Jesus relay the words of the Father?

Revelation 1:8 8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.​

Maybe Jesus was not speaking His own words about Himself.

John 12:49 49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.​

You bring up good points.

Prophets speak for God.

Funny how often Old Testaments prophets spoke exactly what God told them to speak and that the prophets were speaking in the first person when speaking for God.

Malachi 3:6 Is Malachi God?

Jeremiah 18:2 Is Jeremiah a part of some multi-God who is speaking to another person in this multi-god?

Isaiah 41:10 Is Isaiah claiming to be God in this verse?

Prophets are supposed to speak what God tells them to speak verbatim.

Jesus Christ did that perfectly and completely

 

[musterion]

Bs'd

The Tanach, for the Christians the OT, teaches very clearly that there is only ONE God, and that is Y-H-W-H.

People who want to look that over in detail can look here: https://sites.google.com/site/777mountzion/god-of-israel

So if anybody wants to say that Christ was God, or divine, than he has no choice than to say that Christ was Y-H-W-H, because there simply is no other God than Y-H-W-H.

But then you encounter the following problems:

If anybody says Christ is the same as Y-H-W-H then you are stuck with the fact that Y-H-W-H is his own son and at the same time his own father.


Then you are stuck with the fact that when Christ prays to his father, Y-H-W-H is praying to himself.


Luke 22:41-42: “and He knelt down and began to pray, saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."

So here Y-H-W-H has a different will than himself???


Even in heaven Christ is subjected to the Father, according to Corinthians 15:28, Matthew 20:23, Fillipens 2:9, and others.

So Y-H-W-H is subjected to himself???


When Christ was hanging at the cross, he cried out: “My God, my God, why did you forsake me?” Matthew 27:46

So Y-H-W-H forsook himself???


Collossians 3:1; “set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God.”

Y-H-W-H is sitting at his own right hand???


Y-H-W-H died at the cross, slaughtered by his own creatures?

If so, who resurrected him?


Remember there is only one God: Y-H-W-H who IS one.

By now it should be clear to everybody that it is IMPOSSIBLE that Christ was or is God.

And from that we learn that Christians who worship Christ are idol worshipers.

For more information why Christ was not God and not the messiah, look here: http://MountZion.notlong.com

All you have done here is deny and contradict (primarily) the NT assertions make regarding Christ. You have not disproved them. We either believe them or we do not, but they say what they say.

 

[musterion]

You speak as a child... to say "The chart is self-explanatory "

Then explain it.... you Spiritual Sissy... each:

Let's go with John "I Am" on your wheel of the traditions of men!!! :thumb:

Grab your ankles and get ready for a spiritual beating across your back side... the one with a spine!

KJV Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Now we shall read the same verse from the Greek Septuagint

Septuagint Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην [εγω ειμι ο ων] και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ [ο ων] απεσταλκεν με προς υμας
Note the two separate Greek words used for 'am'

Concordant Literal Version Exo 3:14 Then Elohim spoke to Moses: I shall come to be just as I am coming to be. And He said: Thus shall you say to the sons of Israel, I-Shall-Come-to-Be has sent me to you.

Now when translated literally you get a whole different look. What happened to the other I am's?

The Hebrew Bible uses the word (hâyâh H1961) in the place of "Am" which is a verb meaning to exist, to be.
Check the Strongs' number.

Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?

But what about the great classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"?
Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?

Now here is something very obvious that they never told you in your church. This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no other text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.

Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not “I am is the one speaking to you!”

In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!

What Jesus is saying is simply “Before Abraham was born, I am he,” that is, "I am the Messiah."
Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."

The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus’ claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.

Jesus, NEVER claimed to be God!

:maxi:
Paul

John 18:6.

Do as they did, before it's too late for you.