Apple7
New member
Bs'd
Then please explain who is his father.
Is that the other "only true God"??
Eliyahu
Jesus is the only true God according to scripture.
Bs'd
Then please explain who is his father.
Is that the other "only true God"??
Eliyahu
Bs'd
There is no such thing.
I gave you MANY verses saying God is one.
There is NOT A SINGLE verse saying God is a trinity.
The trinity is a pagan, idolatrous, illogical, extra-Biblical concept.
What part of "God is one" is it that trinitarians don't understand??
Eliyahu
Then why didn't you answer in the negative? "No, that I, Drake, don't love or worship the Lord Jesus Christ."
Another disguised deflection. :mmph:Emotional meltdowns and baseless emotional bates with accusations like I don't love the Lord Jesus Christ are sad admissions that your arguments have failed, and you have no answer to my accusations.
It applies to Jesus.
Exegetically refute that!
:zoomin:
Emotional meltdowns and baseless emotional bates with accusations like I don't love the Lord Jesus Christ are sad admissions that your arguments have failed, and you have no answer to my accusations.
Another disguised deflection. :mmph:
Originally Posted by Apple7
Still waiting for that one Biblical verse which states that God is a monad.
The Trinity is one God.
What part of this don't you understand...?
Moses was Trinitarian.
Be glad to. The NT writers qualify the word Theos with reference to the Father and no other person.
The Bible at no point refers to the One God as an abstract essence/subject or nature/subject that attaches to three other relation subjects or the absolute blasphemy of the Tri-Theistic or Monadistic phrase "God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Ghost".
The only time the NT uses the word Theos and attaches a numeric value to it, it is referring to the Father; never to the son or spirit. And the fact remains, the One God is never said to be a divine nature. The Scripture does describe the Father as the one person who is, “tou monou Theos” (John 5:44 “How can you believe, when you receive [fn]glory from one another and you do not seek the [fn]glory that is from the one and only God?), “ton monon alethinon theon” (John 17:3 “This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.) and “eis theos” (1Cor 8:6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him; Eph 4:6 one God and Father of all ).
Nope.
As mandated by the TSKS rule of Greek grammar, Jesus is called Theos here…
Try reading Jesus’ Baptism.
Regarding John 17.3, if you were even remotely familiar with Greek
then you would already be cognizant that there are absolutely no grammatical reasons at all for denying that αληθινον θεον refers to Jesus Christ.
Of the seventy times in which the demonstrative pronoun ουτος has a personal referent in the Gospel of John and his Epistles, the Father is never the referent! This fact, along with proximity, significantly increases the likelihood that Jesus Christ is the antecedent in the case of 1 John 5.20, as thus…
Btw <--(that means something).Bs'd
Eliyahu
No, it is not an admission that his arguments have failed.Emotional meltdowns and baseless emotional bates with accusations like I don't love the Lord Jesus Christ are sad admissions that your arguments have failed, and you have no answer to my accusations.
Did you even read the post? I never said they never call Jesus theos. I said they never qualify that term numerically with Jesus. They only qualify it numerically with the Father.
Thank you for admitting you have no scripture for your monad.
I took a year of grad level greek and got the best grade in my class the first semester.
Sure I do, the antecedent σέ and the subsequent καὶ ὃν ἀπέστειλας which stands between the two persons. You have Jesus praying to himself.
Your problem is the αὐτοῦ in the previous sentence: ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ. The subject of the conversation is the Father of Jesus Christ.
Paul is clear all over his epistles: Rom 16:27, 1Cor 8:6, and
Tit 3:4 But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, Tit 3:5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Tit 3:6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
and thus Jud 1:25
The Trinity is one God.
What part of this don't you understand...?
Moses was Trinitarian.
Bs'd
You might claim that your trinity is one God, but it is not one god who is one.
This is what Moses said:
Deut 6:4
שמע ישראל י-ה-ו-ה אלהנו י-ה-ו-ה אחד
Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H is our God, Y-H-W-H is ONE.
What part of "God is one" is it that the trinitarians don't understand??
Eliyahu, light unto the nations
"Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H is our God, Y-H-W-H is ONE!" Deut 6:4
"All the peoples walk each in the name of his god, but as for us; we will walk in the name of Y-H-W-H our God forever and ever!" Micah 4:5
Apple7;3247188 Your first ignorant assertion was....[I said:'The NT writers qualify the word Theos with reference to the Father and no other person.'[/I]
And...this somehow 'thwarts' the Trinity, how, exactly...?
You are still trying to guess what the Trinity is...aren't you....?
The Shema is Trinitarian!
Read the statement again. I did not say "The NT writers RESTRICT the word Theos to the Father and no other person." I SAID THAT THE FATHER RECEIVES A QUALIFICATION THAT NO OTHER PERSON RECEIVES.
Depends on your definition of trinity, but it denies that the Father and Son are the same being. Mediation requires a distinction in subject by definition.
What the definition of the trinity is I don't know, but then again, nobody knows.
If you disagree, please give us the definition, but that is not going to happen.