No. It's the same word that was introduced in the previous verse. It doesn't have "firmament of the" in front of it, it doesn't have an extra plural, it isn't capitalized in Hebrew, it just is the same word. And because it refers to the previous events, the waters below the thing called "heaven", it is ridiculous to detach the two verses and say they are talking about two different heavens and two different firmaments.
That seems fair, given the approach I introduced.
However, Biblical use makes it clear that the phrases "under the heaven" refers to everyday stuff like animals (Gen 6:17), hills (Gen 7:19), or men (Ex 7:14).
And as I showed, there are multiple heavens.
Thus I think it is possible that the context of the Hebrew makes it clear that the "heavens" of the firmament named Heaven in verse 8 and the waters under the heavens in verse 9 refer to two different things.
However, I'm not a scholar of Hebrew, so if there is compelling reason to say that those two heavens have to be the same thing, then I'll have to rethink.
The word for "heavens" is exactly the same word as the one for "heaven". Exactly. No difference. When you insert a difference, you are adding to scripture. Don't do that.
Context matters. Also, the Bible makes it clear that there are multiple heavens. It would be incorrect to insist that every instance refers to the same thing.
You are using the model to redefine terms in scripture to say something scripture doesn't really say. That's adding to scripture. Don't do that.
Not really.
Asserting that there are two firmaments and multiple heavens isn't adding to scripture. In the second case, it's respecting scripture, in the first, it is at worst a slight accommodation for an idea that allows the creation account and the flood account to mesh.
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