Homosexuality will destroy this and any country and needs to be recriminalized

serpentdove

serpentdove

BANNED
Banned
Caitlyn Jenner Tells Diane Sawyer: 'Peace in My Soul' Is 48:22

The wickedness of Sodom ([Ex 20:14]
stripper.gif
heterosexual [Lev. 20:10–12] or homosexual [Lev. 20:10,13]) was notorious (Gen. 13:13).
 
Saxon Hammer

Saxon Hammer

New member
Homosexuality will destroy - Impossible
this and any country - Now way
and needs to be recriminalized - NO!

The souls('God') within these people are expressing themselves as they can via the gifts bestowed upon them.
Bestowing the gift of 'recriminalization' only makes their lives worse in the eyes of society and does not change the souls('God') into hetrosexuals.
 
Angel4Truth

Angel4Truth

New member
Hall of Fame
kiwimacahau said:
According to both Ezekiel and Jesus the sin of Sodom was inhospitality.

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According to numerous passages it was also sexual immorality.

"Ezekiel 16:49-50 declares, "Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things before me..."]

Similarly, Jude 7 declares, "...Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion." So, again, while homosexuality was not the only sin in which the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah indulged, it does appear to be the primary reason for the destruction of the cities.

Those who attempt to explain away the biblical condemnations of homosexuality claim that the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah was inhospitality. The men of Sodom and Gomorrah were certainly being inhospitable. There is probably nothing more inhospitable than homosexual gang rape. But to say God completely destroyed two cities and all their inhabitants for being inhospitable clearly misses the point. While Sodom and Gomorrah were guilty of many other horrendous sins, homosexuality was the reason God poured fiery sulfur on the cities, completely destroying them and all of their inhabitants. To this day, the area where Sodom and Gomorrah were located remains a desolate wasteland. Sodom and Gomorrah serve as a powerful example of how God feels about sin in general, and homosexuality specifically." https://www.gotquestions.org/Sodom-and-Gomorrah.html
 
kiwimacahau

kiwimacahau

Well-known member
Nope you posted someone's opinion on the passages. Jesus is the definitive knower of Scripture. He never uses Sodom as anything other than a warning in regards to inhospitality.

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ok doser

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
kiwimacahau said:
Nope you posted someone's opinion on the passages. Jesus is the definitive knower of Scripture. He never uses Sodom as anything other than a warning in regards to inhospitality.
Click to expand...



But is it true that Jesus never said anything about homosexuality?

Actually, like the other similar objections, there are several reasons why this argument does not hold up to biblical and logical scrutiny. Today I’d like to address five of them.

Argument from Silence

First, it must be noted that this is an argument from silence, and thus rests on a shaky rational foundation. Jesus also didn’t say a word about pedophilia, bestiality, or rape. But it would be absurd to seek to garner support for any of those abominable acts on the basis of such silence.

Special Pleading

Second, this objection rests upon a premise that the objectors reject—namely, that the Bible is God’s infallible Word. What I mean is: the only source of knowledge for the claim that Jesus never said something about a particular topic is the Bible itself.

The argument is: “Jesus never said anything [implied: as we see recorded in the Bible] about homosexuality.” Yet it is the authority of this very Bible that these folks deny when they refuse to accept Paul’s teaching on homosexuality. So the argument itself is a case of special pleading. Those who employ it appeal to an authority that they elsewhere explicitly reject—namely, the Bible as God’s Word.

No Reason to Say What Everyone Agreed Upon

Third, a great portion of Jesus’ ministry related to Israel and those familiar with the Law of Moses. They were living in an age under the Mosaic Covenant, which explicitly condemned homosexuality (Lev 18:22; 20:13). Unless there was some precipitating issue that would force Jesus to comment on homosexuality, the only reasonable conclusion — especially in light of the fact that Jesus viewed the Old Testament as the very Word of God (e.g., Matt 22:43) which was infallible (John 10:35) — is that His view of homosexuality was the Old Testament’s view (i.e., God’s view) of homosexuality.

What Jesus Did Say about Marriage

Fourth, when Jesus did speak about marriage, He affirmed it as an institution between a male and a female. In Matthew 19, the Pharisees asked Him what He thought about divorce, hoping to trap Him into disagreeing with Moses and therefore finding reason for condemning Him.

In His response about why divorce is a bad thing and a result of the hardness of human hearts, Jesus says, “Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate.”

If Jesus wanted to simply and efficiently answer the Pharisees’ question about divorce, He could have done so by skipping immediately to verse 5: “Have you not read that the two become one flesh?” That’s really the answer to the question about divorce. God joins spouses together as one flesh, and man shouldn’t separate what God has joined together.

So why does He start, in verse 4, by reminding the Pharisees that God made human beings male and female? For two reasons, at least. First, He makes this point to underscore that marriage, by its very nature, is a divinely-ordained institution — that the originator of marriage is the Creator Himself.

Second, He emphasizes this point to clarify that the divinely-ordained institution of marriage exists only between one man and one woman. God created human beings as male and female, and then brought them together in one flesh. The husband-wife relationship illustrates the complementarity and unity-in-diversity that characterizes God’s own nature as one Being who eternally exists in three Persons.

All of Scripture is the Word of Jesus

But all of those responses are really supplementary to this final one. It concerns the inspiration of the New Testament. While it’s true that we have no record of Jesus speaking about homosexuality during His earthly sojourn, the Holy Spirit, whom Jesus sent to speak His words (John 16:12–14), superintended what Paul wrote so that he wrote exactly what God desired to be written (2 Tim 3:16–17; 2 Pet 1:20–21).

See, strictly speaking, Jesus did not stop speaking when Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John finished their Gospel accounts. While Jesus was still on earth, He told the disciples that He had much to say to them, things which they could not bear at that time (John 16:12).

But He promised that the Holy Spirit would come to the disciples and would guide them into all truth. This is a promise from Jesus Himself that the word that the Holy Spirit would speak through the disciples would be Christ’s own words (John 16:13). In this way, the Spirit would glorify Jesus (John 16:14).

And the Holy Spirit did just that. As the Church was being built, the Spirit spoke Jesus’ words to the writers of the New Testament. All Scripture (which, according to 2 Peter 3:16, included Paul’s writings) is God-breathed (2 Tim 3:16)—that is, it is the very Word of God, His own breath. “But,” you ask, “didn’t men write Scripture?” Yes they did. But the Holy Spirit so superintended the minds and wills of the writers of Scripture such that the words they wrote under their own recognizance were precisely what God wanted to say to His people (2 Pet 1:20–21).

So the Book of Acts, the epistles of Paul, Peter, John, James, and Jude, the letter to the Hebrews, and the Revelation given to the Apostle John are all the word of God Himself. And, since God exists eternally as Father, Son, and Spirit, and since Jesus is Himself God the Son, all of the New Testament is the Word of Christ (cf. Col. 3:16). Even the words not appearing in red type are nevertheless the Lord of the Church speaking to His Church by means of the Holy Spirit through the agency of human writers.

So did Jesus address homosexuality? Yes, He did. He did so by sending His Spirit to superintend the writing of Paul such that what Paul wrote was precisely what Jesus intended, so much so that it could be said to be “God-breathed.” Jesus condemned homosexuality by means of Paul’s condemnation of homosexuality. And therefore, to deny that homosexuality is sinful is to deny Jesus Himself, and that is irreconcilable with true, biblical Christianity.


https://www.tms.edu/preachersandpreaching/jesus-never-address-homosexuality/




congratulations kiwi!

you're a supporter of rape, bestiality and child molestation!
 
Angel4Truth

Angel4Truth

New member
Hall of Fame
kiwimacahau said:
Nope you posted someone's opinion on the passages. Jesus is the definitive knower of Scripture. He never uses Sodom as anything other than a warning in regards to inhospitality.

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I gave the word of God in context, and the actual hebrew rendering.

As far as Jesus, you mean the one who defined what marriage is (man and woman) and the very creation of man and woman refering to Genesis as it was in the begining and then said a man leaves his father and is joined to a wife and if you cannot handle this to remain celibate for the kingdom of heaven? That Jesus? (see mathew chapter 19) then see why a man and woman and marriage in malachi for why one (man and woman)(to produce godly offspring and so your children would be holy)

No need to define all the things that marriage isnt, once what it is, has been made clear, so homos are adulterous fornicators in addition to sodomites who cannot produce children nor marry.

Since youre worried only about what Jesus specifically says instead of all the other bible passages, right?
 
kiwimacahau

kiwimacahau

Well-known member
Angel4Truth said:
I gave the word of God in context, and the actual hebrew rendering.

As far as Jesus, you mean the one who defined what marriage is (man and woman) and the very creation of man and woman refering to Genesis as it was in the begining and then said a man leaves his father and is joined to a wife and if you cannot handle this to remain celibate for the kingdom of heaven? That Jesus? (see mathew chapter 19) then see why a man and woman and marriage in malachi for why one (man and woman)(to produce godly offspring and so your children would be holy)

No need to define all the things that marriage isnt, once what it is, has been made clear, so homos are adulterous fornicators in addition to sodomites.
Click to expand...
Ah heiferdust. Your arrogance and hatred are showing again.

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kiwimacahau

kiwimacahau

Well-known member
ok doser said:

But is it true that Jesus never said anything about homosexuality?

Actually, like the other similar objections, there are several reasons why this argument does not hold up to biblical and logical scrutiny. Today I’d like to address five of them.

Argument from Silence

First, it must be noted that this is an argument from silence, and thus rests on a shaky rational foundation. Jesus also didn’t say a word about pedophilia, bestiality, or rape. But it would be absurd to seek to garner support for any of those abominable acts on the basis of such silence.

Special Pleading

Second, this objection rests upon a premise that the objectors reject—namely, that the Bible is God’s infallible Word. What I mean is: the only source of knowledge for the claim that Jesus never said something about a particular topic is the Bible itself.

The argument is: “Jesus never said anything [implied: as we see recorded in the Bible] about homosexuality.” Yet it is the authority of this very Bible that these folks deny when they refuse to accept Paul’s teaching on homosexuality. So the argument itself is a case of special pleading. Those who employ it appeal to an authority that they elsewhere explicitly reject—namely, the Bible as God’s Word.

No Reason to Say What Everyone Agreed Upon

Third, a great portion of Jesus’ ministry related to Israel and those familiar with the Law of Moses. They were living in an age under the Mosaic Covenant, which explicitly condemned homosexuality (Lev 18:22; 20:13). Unless there was some precipitating issue that would force Jesus to comment on homosexuality, the only reasonable conclusion — especially in light of the fact that Jesus viewed the Old Testament as the very Word of God (e.g., Matt 22:43) which was infallible (John 10:35) — is that His view of homosexuality was the Old Testament’s view (i.e., God’s view) of homosexuality.

What Jesus Did Say about Marriage

Fourth, when Jesus did speak about marriage, He affirmed it as an institution between a male and a female. In Matthew 19, the Pharisees asked Him what He thought about divorce, hoping to trap Him into disagreeing with Moses and therefore finding reason for condemning Him.

In His response about why divorce is a bad thing and a result of the hardness of human hearts, Jesus says, “Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate.”

If Jesus wanted to simply and efficiently answer the Pharisees’ question about divorce, He could have done so by skipping immediately to verse 5: “Have you not read that the two become one flesh?” That’s really the answer to the question about divorce. God joins spouses together as one flesh, and man shouldn’t separate what God has joined together.

So why does He start, in verse 4, by reminding the Pharisees that God made human beings male and female? For two reasons, at least. First, He makes this point to underscore that marriage, by its very nature, is a divinely-ordained institution — that the originator of marriage is the Creator Himself.

Second, He emphasizes this point to clarify that the divinely-ordained institution of marriage exists only between one man and one woman. God created human beings as male and female, and then brought them together in one flesh. The husband-wife relationship illustrates the complementarity and unity-in-diversity that characterizes God’s own nature as one Being who eternally exists in three Persons.

All of Scripture is the Word of Jesus

But all of those responses are really supplementary to this final one. It concerns the inspiration of the New Testament. While it’s true that we have no record of Jesus speaking about homosexuality during His earthly sojourn, the Holy Spirit, whom Jesus sent to speak His words (John 16:12–14), superintended what Paul wrote so that he wrote exactly what God desired to be written (2 Tim 3:16–17; 2 Pet 1:20–21).

See, strictly speaking, Jesus did not stop speaking when Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John finished their Gospel accounts. While Jesus was still on earth, He told the disciples that He had much to say to them, things which they could not bear at that time (John 16:12).

But He promised that the Holy Spirit would come to the disciples and would guide them into all truth. This is a promise from Jesus Himself that the word that the Holy Spirit would speak through the disciples would be Christ’s own words (John 16:13). In this way, the Spirit would glorify Jesus (John 16:14).

And the Holy Spirit did just that. As the Church was being built, the Spirit spoke Jesus’ words to the writers of the New Testament. All Scripture (which, according to 2 Peter 3:16, included Paul’s writings) is God-breathed (2 Tim 3:16)—that is, it is the very Word of God, His own breath. “But,” you ask, “didn’t men write Scripture?” Yes they did. But the Holy Spirit so superintended the minds and wills of the writers of Scripture such that the words they wrote under their own recognizance were precisely what God wanted to say to His people (2 Pet 1:20–21).

So the Book of Acts, the epistles of Paul, Peter, John, James, and Jude, the letter to the Hebrews, and the Revelation given to the Apostle John are all the word of God Himself. And, since God exists eternally as Father, Son, and Spirit, and since Jesus is Himself God the Son, all of the New Testament is the Word of Christ (cf. Col. 3:16). Even the words not appearing in red type are nevertheless the Lord of the Church speaking to His Church by means of the Holy Spirit through the agency of human writers.

So did Jesus address homosexuality? Yes, He did. He did so by sending His Spirit to superintend the writing of Paul such that what Paul wrote was precisely what Jesus intended, so much so that it could be said to be “God-breathed.” Jesus condemned homosexuality by means of Paul’s condemnation of homosexuality. And therefore, to deny that homosexuality is sinful is to deny Jesus Himself, and that is irreconcilable with true, biblical Christianity.


https://www.tms.edu/preachersandpreaching/jesus-never-address-homosexuality/




congratulations kiwi!

you're a supporter of rape, bestiality and child molestation!
Click to expand...
Oh and I'm sure you can prove your accusation that I support beastiality, rape and child molestation. You are perilously close to defamation of character here. I'll give you an opportunity to walk your statement back.

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