ECT Does what we do reflect what we believe?

[Cross Reference]

Not only were all our sins taken to the cross, but we have been delivered from the law and it's condemnation.

I'll take that as a yes. So why isn't Rom 8:1 seen as a contingency clause by you?

 

[Cross Reference]

Paul did view it as such.

He held himself as one who was "Blameless", therefore, without any reason for conviction or condemnation. Obviously Paul placed his faith in the law as being the God he served. I see no self-righteousness in that, do you?

 

[Cross Reference]

Please provide a verse that shows the law is now a Person or that "faith was in the doing of it."

You read your Bible and don't know that understanding?? Amazing!!

Jesus didn't do away with the LAW did, He? [Careful with your answer].

Faith is needed to "walk out" the life of Christ Jesus and in the process of the "doing" it, "all these things will be added unto you". [What things but, Romans 8:1]

 

[glorydaz]

I'll take that as a yes. So why isn't Rom 8:1 seen as a contingency clause by you?

Because Paul goes on to make it clear that those who have the Spirit of God are not in the flesh. So when some try to say our walk is what qualifies or disqualifies us from condemnation, they are misstating Paul's position.

 

[glorydaz]

He held himself as one who was "Blameless", therefore, without any reason for conviction or condemnation. Obviously Paul placed his faith in the law as being the God he served. I see no self-righteousness in that, do you?

No, one's faith in the law is not faith in God. God is not the law.

Paul, as a Pharisee, kept the letter of the law. That is not what makes one righteous. It IS how men make themselves self-righteous, however.

 

[patrick jane]

Do you believe we cannot sin if we believe in Christ for salvation; if, because of His cross, our sin is no longrt looked upon as sin?

Isaiah 43:25 KJV - Hebrews 8:12 KJV -

 

[Cross Reference]

Isaiah 43:25 KJV - Hebrews 8:12 KJV -

What is your point when there is no definitive time period or reason for it mentioned? when? Where? Why?

 

[Cross Reference]

No, one's faith in the law is not faith in God. God is not the law.

You know that and I know that. All after the fact. Point is, Paul didn't know that until maybe Ananias spelled it out for him. I say he didn't know and his explanation points to that as being why he held himself, "blameless".

Paul, as a Pharisee, kept the letter of the law. That is not what makes one righteous. It IS how men make themselves self-righteous, however.

Ditto my last. Paul rigtly held himself as a righteous man. Jesus did as well on the road to Damascus when HE asked: "Paul, why do you persecute Me"? . . .Do you think a self righteous man would have replied: "Lord, what would you have me do"?

 

[glorydaz]

You read your Bible and don't know that understanding?? Amazing!!

Do you see how your condescending attitude is a result of your self-righteousness? :think:

Jesus didn't do away with the LAW did, He? [Careful with your answer].

He came to establish the law....make it holy. He came to make clear what the purpose of the law was and he gave that revelation to Paul. Paul spends quite some time making it clear in many of his letters and details it out in Romans 7, yet so many people continue to miss it. The law was never meant to justify, sanctify, or give life. It's purpose was to show men their guilt and lead them to Christ...where they would be justified by faith and given life (while being conformed into the image of the Son).

Faith is needed to "walk out" the life of Christ Jesus and in the process of the "doing" it, "all these things will be added unto you". [What things but, Romans 8:1]

You put quotes around "walk out", but I see no verse to support that. And the "doing of it" is HIS WORK in us, which is why boasting is excluded by the law of faith. And, the "added unto you" is not done by you, either.

 

[Cross Reference]

Because Paul goes on to make it clear that those who have the Spirit of God are not in the flesh. So when some try to say our walk is what qualifies or disqualifies us from condemnation, they are misstating Paul's position.

Paul's position was Rom 8:1. How come you don't come to that conclusion?

He came to establish the law....make it holy. He came to make clear what the purpose of the law was and he gave that revelation to Paul. Paul spends quite some time making it clear in many of his letters and details it out in Romans 7, yet so many people continue to miss it. The law was never meant to justify, sanctify, or give life. It's purpose was to show men their guilt and lead them to Christ...where they would be justified by faith and given life (while being conformed into the image of the Son).

Yes! Jesus established it in Himself; by His life! What do you think fulfilling it means?

 

[glorydaz]

You know that and I know that. All after the fact. Point is, did Paul didn't know that until maybe Ananias spelled it out for him. I say he didn't know and his explantion points to that as being why he held himself, "blameless".

It's true that as a Pharisee Paul considered himself righteous BECAUSE he kept the letter of the law, but he had not submitted to the righteousness of God. He was still going about to establish his own righteousness. Romans 10:1-3

It's also why he says he was alive without the law until the law "came" in Romans 7. He felt alive and confident while keeping the LETTER of the law. It's in that moment of realization of "coveting" which moved his outer obedience to his inner heart that he was condemned by the law and was slain by it. The Law had served it's purpose when that happened.

Ditto my last. Paul rigtly held himself as a righteous man. Jesus did as well on the road to Damascus when HE asked: "Paul, why do you persecute Me"? . . .Do you think a self righteous man would have replied: "Lord, what would you have me do"?

He was not "rightly" a righteous man else Jesus would not have said what He did. It was that moment that he saw it was the state of his heart that condemned him. It's when he understood the purpose of the law which he later preached on.

 

[glorydaz]

Paul's position was Rom 8:1. How come you don't come to that conclusion?

I realize what Paul's position was. Before he met the Lord on the road to Damascus he was the wretched man of Romans 7, and afterward he was able to thank the Lord Jesus Christ for freeing him from the law of sin and death.

Yes! Jesus established it in Himself; by His life! What do you think fulfilling it means?

It means He established it's purpose. The purpose of God's Law is always the same, but it's purpose can only be realized by man through faith in and of the Lord Jesus Christ.

 

[Cross Reference]

It's true that as a Pharisee Paul considered himself righteous BECAUSE he kept the letter of the law, but he had not submitted to the righteousness of God. He was still going about to establish his own righteousness. Romans 10:1-3

That was righteousness to him!

It's also why he says he was alive without the law until the law "came" in Romans 7. He felt alive and confident while keeping the LETTER of the law. It's in that moment of realization of "coveting" which moved his outer obedience to his inner heart that he was condemned by the law and was slain by it. The Law had served it's purpose when that happened.

Yes! When was it nmade real to him before Ananias or Jesus Himself explain it to him?? Why he saw it as purposed he saw his true condition.

He was not "rightly" a righteous man else Jesus would not have said what He did. It was that moment that he saw it was the state of his heart that condemned him. It's when he understood the purpose of the law which he later preached on.

Yes. And??? Perhaps it was an instant revelation he saw his error. That does not dismiss or label his prior reighteousness before God as unrighteousness. However, it would have had he replied to Jesus in an untoward way by rejecting what Jesus revealed to him. He certainly acted upon his new found undersstanding in the matter in the best possible way, didn't he? . . .But, then God knew he would come around when presented with the irrefutable evidence of Jesus as Lord, the messiah he served God in hope.

 

[Cross Reference]

I realize what Paul's position was. Before he met the Lord on the road to Damascus he was the wretched man of Romans 7, and afterward he was able to thank the Lord Jesus Christ for freeing him from the law of sin and death.



It means He established it's purpose. The purpose of God's Law is always the same, but it's purpose can only be realized by man through faith in and of the Lord Jesus Christ.

When you are able to see that in serving Jesus Christ as Lord will you understand you are keeping the Law of Moses.

That is salvation being "walked out" in human flesh. This time it would be yours.

 

[Cross Reference]

When you are able to see that in serving Jesus Christ as Lord will you understand you are keeping the Law of Moses.

That is salvation being "walked out" in human flesh. This time it would be yours.

"And Jesus said unto Zaceus, This day is salvation come to this house, . . . . ." Luke 19:9 (KJV) And Jesus said as much to Paul: "thine ears shall hear a word behind thee, saying, This is the way, walk ye in it, when ye turn to the right hand, and when ye turn to the left". Isaiah 30:21 (KJV)
/QUOTE]

 

[glorydaz]

Yes! When was it nmade real to him before Ananias or Jesus Himself explain it to him?? Why he saw it as purposed he saw his true condition.

No one had to explain it to him. His heart was purified by faith when he believed. It was that circumcision of the heart (performed by the Spirit) at the moment of salvation. In the same way, we can know the difference between right and wrong before we're saved, but it's when that wrong is understood to be "exceedingly sinful" that the law has fulfilled it's purpose in us.

Yes. And??? Perhaps it was an instant revelation he saw his error. That does not dismiss or label his prior reighteousness before God as unrighteousness. However, it would have had he replied to Jesus in an untoward way by rejecting what Jesus revealed to him. He certainly acted upon his new found undersstanding in the matter in the best possible way, didn't he? . . .But, then God knew he would come around when presented with the irrefutable evidence of Jesus as Lord, the messiah he served God in hope.

Keeping the letter of the law is not righteousness. I'm not sure why you keep saying that. It's nothing more than self-righteousness. It's a façade....a mask that covers up what is inside.

It isn't a matter of coming to an understanding as if it's a head knowledge. It's a matter of believing in one's heart, and then being created a new creature in Christ Jesus. That's a work of God in those who believe.

 

[glorydaz]

When you are able to see that in serving Jesus Christ as Lord will you understand you are keeping the Law of Moses.

Keeping the law of Moses is contrary to the law of faith. I'm not sure why you're claiming those who have graduated will have any need to go back under the schoolmaster. How about some verse to support what you say? How about you read Gal. 3 and 4?

That is salvation being "walked out" in human flesh. This time it would be yours.

Show me some verse that supports your idea of salvation being "walked out". If it isn't in the Bible, it's just some made up idea of your own.

 

[Cross Reference]

Keeping the law of Moses is contrary to the law of faith. I'm not sure why you're claiming those who have graduated will have any need to go back under the schoolmaster. How about some verse to support what you say? How about you read Gal. 3 and 4?



Show me some verse that supports your idea of salvation being "walked out". If it isn't in the Bible, it's just some made up idea of your own.

No. I won't do it because you are dead set in your MAD doctrine or something of the sort that has blinded you to all else Jesus Christ. It is a waste of time until tou get beyond the issue of salvation to move on in Christ without the need to constantly require to have explained to you verses of scripture you reject of hand OR make "fit" you bias. It ain't worth it.

Beyond this you are on you own:

"And thine ears shall hear a word behind thee, saying, This is the way, walk ye in it, when ye turn to the right hand, and when ye turn to the left." 
Isaiah 30:21 (KJV) 


What does God mean "walk ye in it" if His salvation is not the result of the conclusion?

"And Jesus said unto him [Zaceus], This day is salvation come to this house, . . . . ." 
Luke 19:9 (KJV)

Salvation by the Blood of Christ had not yet happened. You figure it out how Jesus could have said a thing if not referring to His own, yet to be offered, "FLESH". 
. . . still being "walked out".

I'm done except for more thing: You still continue to ignore Romans 8:1 as being a truth contingent upon, "walking it out".

 

[glorydaz]

Show me some verse that supports your idea of salvation being "walked out". If it isn't in the Bible, it's just some made up idea of your own.

No. I won't do it

Exactly...because you can't do it.

 

[Cross Reference]

Exactly...because you can't do it.

You wouldn't receive it if was Jesus was on my keyboard.