Originally posted by godrulz
- some feel Ex. 4:11 teaches that all infirmities are specifically willed by God.
- Yet Jesus and the Gospel authors uniformly diagnosed muteness, deafness, blindness, etc. as directly or indirectly coming from the devil. Jesus demonstrated God's will for people by removing these infirmities. Ex. 4, properly interpreted, will not contradict the ministry of Jesus (he opposed evil and sickness, not affirmed it as God's will).
I agree that Satan is the agent through whom illness and sickness comes, that Satan can do nothing without first getting permission from God, and the Lord can override and destroy Satan's work any time He chooses to do so.
1 John 3:8 (KJV)
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
- We must interpret the Ex. passage in light of Jesus' ministry. One OT verse should not contradict Jesus' explanation for evil. There is no rift between the Father (who supposedly controls Satan...a weak argument)
Why do you say that the fact that God controls Satan is a "weak argument"? I would say that fact is foundational to all our understanding of God and Satan.
If it were not so, then we would be deists, not monotheists.
and the Son (who opposes sin, sickness, and Satan).
The point is not that Jesus "opposes" sin, sickness, and Satan, in principal, but that Jesus "defeats" sin, sickness, and Satan in actuality.
The fact is, that Satan can do nothing, apart from God. We are commanded to fear God, not Satan.
Rev. 14:7 (KJV)
Saying with a loud voice,
Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.
If everything "bad" that happens is attributed to Satan, then where is there any room for God's judgement?
There is no duplicity with Satan and Jesus doing the Father's 'will' (though opposite and mutually exclusive). There is a different interpretation, then, of Ex. 4:11.
I don't get it. Are you saying that Satan is the one who makes men deaf, blind, and dumb, and not God?
- Ex. in context: Moses was arguing that God should not use him because of his bad speech. God was frustrated with Moses in light of His recent miracles demonstrating God's greater ability. Thus God uses emphatic, unqualified language to establish the point that as Creator, He can handle all obstacles in attaining His objectives. In this context, He rhetorically asked Moses: "Who gives speech to mortals?...deaf/blind" It is unlikely that the statement is meant to be taken as a metaphysical explanation of why people are deaf and mute (poking a nail in your ear is not God's fault).
If God does not make men deaf, or blind, or dumb, then why does He claim He does?
Exodus 4:11 (KJV)
And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord?
- Notice what God does NOT say in this passage. God speaks of the human condition in general terms. He does not say that He picks and chooses which INDIVIDUALS wil be born mute or deaf (God is not cruel). He simply asserts that He is the Creator of the kind of world in which some people become disabled (accidents, drugs, stupidity, birth defects, etc.). The verse does not teach that God is the direct cause of everything (obscure proof text), but that the Creator can work around obstacles.
It seems to me that you (and Boyd) are saying that God does not mean what He says.
- The central truth of the OT is that there is one Creator God, not a multitude of conflicting gods. The OT thus emphasizes that God, like an ancient Near Eastern Monarch, is the ultimate source of everything, whether He wills it directly or not. The Lord emphasizes this so Moses would know his speech was not a problem.
Well, you "say" that there are no gods that conflict with what God wants, but you must believe there are, since you credit much of what happens in the world to Satan and to men, rather than to God.
But He is not denying what later revelation will make clear; namely, infirmities such as muteness or blindness originate from Satan, and God wants to empower human mediators to free people from these afflictions.
Empower humans? No.
Acts 3:12 (KJV)
And when Peter saw it, he answered unto the people, Ye men of Israel, why marvel ye at this? or why look ye so earnestly on us, as though by our own power or holiness we had made this man to walk?
Of our own will and agency, we can do nothing. It is only by the power of GOD, that miracles happen.
This is at least an alternate explanation to hyper-Calvinism and is more consistent with the revelation of the character and ways of God as revealed in Christ.
So you say. I disagree that your explanation is more consistent than mine is.
In fact, your explanation could make Satan MORE powerful than God, if there is more "evil" in the world than there is "good".
Do you think there is more "evil" in the world, or more "good"?