Did Christ know He was fully God?

oatmeal

Well-known member
God the Father.



He is.



No, only God the Son was dead.
God the Father and God the Holy Spirit did not die on the cross with Jesus.



God the Father.

Jesus said that He, God the Son, would raise Himself from the dead, and He did. God the Father raised God the Son from the dead.



No, God was not dead. Only God the Son was dead. God the Father and God the Holy Spirit never died.



You're the one being inconsistent, and it's showing by the errors you're making trying to show how our position is wrong.



Because God the Father raised God the Son from the dead.



God raising the dead in Christ is only tangentially related to God raising Christ from the dead.



Says the one who rips verses out of context.

Here's the rest of the quoted passage. Tell me who you think this Psalm is about:

The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at My right hand, Till I make Your enemies Your footstool.”The Lord shall send the rod of Your strength out of Zion. Rule in the midst of Your enemies!Your people shall be volunteers In the day of Your power; In the beauties of holiness, from the womb of the morning, You have the dew of Your youth.The Lord has sworn And will not relent, “You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek.”The Lord is at Your right hand; He shall execute kings in the day of His wrath.He shall judge among the nations, He shall fill the places with dead bodies, He shall execute the heads of many countries.He shall drink of the brook by the wayside; Therefore He shall lift up the head. - Psalm 110:1-7 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm110:1-7&version=NKJV

If you said, "Jesus Christ, the Messiah," you're correct. Anyone else, and you'd be wrong.

Tell me, Oatsy, who's enemies will be made a footstool?

The two LORDS David spoke of is God the Father and God the Son.

God the Father said to God the Son, "sit at My right hand."

God the Father is speaking to God the Son, whom would later be called Jesus, Immanuel, Prince of Peace, Holy One, King of Kings, Lord of Lords, Lion of the Tribe of Judah, and many other names.



You're dividing wrong.

The distinction is not between God and His human Son, as you imply.

The distinction is between God the Father and God the Son.



Being called the Son of God does not exclude Him from being God. The way you put it, He's either the Son of God or He's God, and you say he's not God but the Son of God. I tell you that's a false dichotomy. He is BOTH. Remember John 1:1?

The Word was with God and God was the Word.



And your denial of Christ's Godhood is blasphemous.



Says someone whom I'm starting to see as a heretic.


Quote Originally Posted by oatmeal View Post
Who then is the God that raised Jesus from the dead?

God the Father.

If Jesus is fully God,


then God was dead,

No, only God the Son was dead.
God the Father and God the Holy Spirit did not die on the cross with Jesus.

who raised the dead God from the dead?

God the Father.






Yes, it is the God and Father of the lord Jesus Christ that raised him from the dead. You might want to tell your trinitarian buddies that, for they believe that Jesus raised himself from the dead because of a verse they misunderstand.

Although there are over 20 passages that clearly state that God raised Jesus from the dead, they discard those verses and focus only on.

John 2:19

Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

They use that as proof that Jesus is God.

However, I Thessalonians 4:16 states the same about those believers who are dead in Christ at our gathering together unto him.

For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:

The dead in Christ shall rise first it says. It does not say that God or Jesus Christ will raise them, it is clear that the dead in Christ shall rise first.

By using the same logic that trins use in John 2 to "prove" that Jesus is God, that logic then can be used to prove that the dead in Christ of I Thes are God also.

Anyway, God the Son you say.

Please show me the scripture where God uses the term "God the Son" to refer to His son.

Since you nor anyone else can, for there is no such passage in scripture, please be honest and not make up stuff and claim it is scripture.

However, Jesus is referred to as the son of God in about 50 passages.

God, in His word, his logos, his message in written form, does not use the erroneous and inaccurate and false reference of "God the Son" to refer to His son, He uses the accurate term "son of God" to refer to His son.

You might want to adjust your thinking accordingly.

Why not describe Jesus Christ like his God and Father does?

Or are you so arrogant as to suggest that God got it wrong?

Are you so arrogant so as to suggest that God's mastery of language needs your input to correct it?

God does not call His son,"God the Son", why do you?

Why not humble yourself before God instead of exalting your self against God?

Before you claim that "God the Son" and "son of God" mean the same thing, you might want to consider the fact that God chose to call his son the son of God not God the Son and that he might have done that for a reason.

Let's take a similar situation. Does "daughter of Jacob" mean the same thing as "Jacob the daughter"?????

If you are a male, and had a daughter what phrase would you use to refer to her? Daughter of JudgeRightly or JudgeRightly the daughter?

If they mean the same thing, then how can we clearly understand anything in scripture?

Then maybe daughter no longer means daughter and husband no longer means husband and children no longer mean children and lion no longer means lion and truth no longer means truth.

If the three in one God is three and one of them died then you no longer have a triune God, you only have a biune God. Is the biune God still God? No, it couldn't be because it is no longer triune.

Your God is triune, not biune. Thus a biune God is no longer God and as such is incapable of doing what God does.

By the way, you might want to ask yourself why God never describes himself as "triune" or as "trinity"

Is that because He is not smart enough, like evidently trinitarians are, to have a sufficient vocabulary to define himself accurately?

Clearly, you think God's vocabulary is inferior to yours. Well, I am sure that your three Gods appreaciate your help in instructing them in accurate terminology.

Since this reply is getting rather long and I have only touched upon two of your comments I think I will stop here for now.

I may get back to this later

After all I just got started. I have yet to get to the best parts!
 
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oatmeal

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Philippians 2:6

Evidently, you disagree with gd.

After all Philippians 2:6 does not say that Jesus Christ is fully God only that he was in the form of God.

Adam and Eve were in the form of God, after all they were created in the image of God, being in the form of God is no more being God than being in the form of God.

Adam and Eve did not have any problem thinking themselves equal to God. The talked to God and spent time with God naked and unashamedly.

For that matter since Christians have the righteousness of God, II Corinthians 5:21, they are equal to God in that respect. Christianity should have no problem talking with God either, God encourages it. Of course, doing so respectfully is the right approach, but God encourages us to open up to him, to go boldly to the throne of grace.

God expects us, as His children, to go to Him. We go boldly to the throne for we are equal to God in that respect, we do not have to make an appointment to talk to God, He is accessible to us at all times. It is not robbery for us to go to God
 

JudgeRightly

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Hello? JudgeRightly?

Hello?
Could you reply to my previous post by responding to each of my points as I make them? or at the very least, move your answers in your above post to just below their appropriate questions?

ie,

response
response
etc...

It makes it easier for me to respond, because I know the context of your reply.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Evidently, you disagree with gd.

After all Philippians 2:6 does not say that Jesus Christ is fully God only that he was in the form of God.

Adam and Eve were in the form of God, after all they were created in the image of God, being in the form of God is no more being God than being in the form of God.

Adam and Eve did not have any problem thinking themselves equal to God. The talked to God and spent time with God naked and unashamedly.

For that matter since Christians have the righteousness of God, II Corinthians 5:21, they are equal to God in that respect. Christianity should have no problem talking with God either, God encourages it. Of course, doing so respectfully is the right approach, but God encourages us to open up to him, to go boldly to the throne of grace.

God expects us, as His children, to go to Him. We go boldly to the throne for we are equal to God in that respect, we do not have to make an appointment to talk to God, He is accessible to us at all times. It is not robbery for us to go to God


Does any one see the word "in" in verse 5 or is it just me?

Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

IN Christ Jesus, small word, easy to overlook.




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glorydaz

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Does any one see the word "in" in verse 5 or is it just me?

Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

IN Christ Jesus, small word, easy to overlook.

I don't know what you're imagining, Keypurr, but that simply means to be likeminded.

Phil. 2:2 Fulfil ye my joy, that ye be likeminded, having the same love, being of one accord, of one mind.​
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
Could you reply to my previous post by responding to each of my points as I make them? or at the very least, move your answers in your above post to just below their appropriate questions?

ie,


response

response
etc...

It makes it easier for me to respond, because I know the context of your reply.

I added the lines that I was responding to.

Since I posted so much based those few lines of yours, I don't think I will reply to more of your opinions.

It is too much work to teach someone who prefers tradition over truth.

However, I find that your mind is blinded to your own errors.

For instance, you contradict yourself, yet you would defend your indefensible postulation

I asked, "who raised the dead God from the dead?"

You replied,

"God the Father.

Jesus said that He, God the Son, would raise Himself from the dead, and He did. God the Father raised God the Son from the dead."

Your "God the Son" was dead. yet you say that he raised himself from the dead, but he was dead.

Then you say God the Father raised him from the dead.

So who raised him? Did God the Son raise himself or did God the Father?

Why does the trinitarian doctrine have no meaning? because the words you use have no meaning.
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
Does any one see the word "in" in verse 5 or is it just me?

Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

IN Christ Jesus, small word, easy to overlook.




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Jesus Christ was in the form of God

To be in the form of God is not more saying "is God", than being created in the image of God means "is God"
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
I don't know what you're imagining, Keypurr, but that simply means to be likeminded.

Phil. 2:2 Fulfil ye my joy, that ye be likeminded, having the same love, being of one accord, of one mind.​

I am to have the mind of Christ.

You claim that Jesus knew he was fully God.

That is what was in Jesus Christ's mind

Jesus therefore must have thought, "I am fully God" in his mind.

So, since you are to have the same mind, which requires the same thoughts, you must likewise think, "I am fully God" Are you fully God?

OR is the passage about service to God, which Jesus Christ as the son of God, a man, excelled at, and we should take him as the perfect example of a man lovingly obeying God regardless of the threats and resistance and dangers.

Jesus Christ the man could redeem us because he perfectly and completely obeyed God, therefore God highly exalted him.
 

keypurr

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Jesus Christ was in the form of God

To be in the form of God is not more saying "is God", than being created in the image of God means "is God"

We agree friend but most do not wish to see that.

The express image of the Father is a creation for all images are creations. Col 1:15 ells you he is a creature not God.


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glorydaz

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I am to have the mind of Christ.

You claim that Jesus knew he was fully God.

That is what was in Jesus Christ's mind

Jesus therefore must have thought, "I am fully God" in his mind.

So, since you are to have the same mind, which requires the same thoughts, you must likewise think, "I am fully God" Are you fully God?

OR is the passage about service to God, which Jesus Christ as the son of God, a man, excelled at, and we should take him as the perfect example of a man lovingly obeying God regardless of the threats and resistance and dangers.

Jesus Christ the man could redeem us because he perfectly and completely obeyed God, therefore God highly exalted him.

Ah, so you think Jesus could only think of one thing at a time. I don't know about you, Oats, but, even I can hold many things in my mind at the same time. Jesus, being a human being, was fully functional as a man, while at the same time being fully Divine in His abilities. He continued to accomplish all He had been doing from the beginning while walking this earth among us. Why you insist on trying to limit our Great God is beyond me. :nono:
 

keypurr

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In refusing to know His dual nature, you refuse to know Him.

If you read my posts you would know that I speak of his duel nature.

1. Jesus is human.
2. The logos went into him and speaks through him. The logos became flesh IN him.


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Bright Raven

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If you read my posts you would know that I speak of his duel nature.

1. Jesus is human.
2. The logos went into him and speaks through him. The logos became flesh IN him.


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So you consider Him to be divine?
 

Bright Raven

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I consider the logos to be a form of God.
Depending on how you define divine, I might agree.
The logos is a god for it was given the fullness of his creator.


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I think the meaning of Logos is pretty apparent.

John 1:1 New International Version (NIV)

The Word Became Flesh
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:14 New International Version (NIV)

14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Do you still say He is divine?
 

keypurr

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I think the meaning of Logos is pretty apparent.

John 1:1 New International Version (NIV)

The Word Became Flesh
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:14 New International Version (NIV)

14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Do you still say He is divine?

You realize that I believe that the logos is the spirit son, the express image, I hope. God used his spirit son to do his creations. This son is second only to the Father. This son is God's first creation, firstborn of all creatures. Yes, he is divine, he is a god.


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Bright Raven

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You realize that I believe that the logos is the spirit son, the express image, I hope. God used his spirit son to do his creations. This son is second only to the Father. This son is God's first creation, firstborn of all creatures. Yes, he is divine, he is a god.


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Do you realize that the Creator is not created, correct?
 
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