heir
TOL Subscriber
So there is only one gospel of salvation?
There is only one gospel of YOUR salvation!
So there is only one gospel of salvation?
There is more than one gospel in the Bible. Anyone who can walk through the forest without bumping into the trees can see that!Yep - one Gospel. The Dispys want to insist on two+ gospels, but they are clearly in error and in contradiction with the scriptures.
What a load of bull. God wills all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4-6 KJV). Therefore, salvation is available to all men (Titus 2:11 KJV) to hear and trust the Lord believing (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV, Ephesians 1:13-14 KJV)!The problem is, sinners can listen to the gospel, but unless and until God grants them new spiritual "ears to hear" (through the miracle of regeneration) they will not respond to the message.
There is only one gospel of YOUR salvation!
Yes, sadly there are many who preach an other gospel than that which Paul preached (Galatians 1:8-9 KJV). It's usually a hijacked gospel of the kingdom which is a time past and ages to come message to and through Israel. It was never to any of us.I would agree - however it seems that some will not speak the same Gospel that is declared to believers when speaking to unbelievers.
Yes, sadly there are many who preach an other gospel than that which Paul preached (Galatians 1:8-9 KJV).
It's usually a hijacked gospel of the kingdom which is a time past and ages to come message to and through Israel. It was never to any of us.
What a load of bull. God wills all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4-6 KJV). Therefore, salvation is available to all men (Titus 2:11 KJV) to hear and trust the Lord believing (Ephesians 1:13-14 KJV)!
"Load of bull?" How unladylike of you . . .
And you are very wrong.
God wills all kinds of men & women be saved; but these verses that do not support universal atonement.
If God indeed willed that ALL men universally be saved, then ALL men would repent of their sins and convert to faith in Jesus Christ.
There would be no warnings of judgment and hell left to proclaim, at all!
But rather, God has willed that all kinds of sinners, out of all nationalities and genders, be saved . . poor as well as rich, female as well as male, kings as well as commoners, slaves as well as free, etc. etc.
Not a word of Holy Scripture interprets this global will of God to save men of all nationalities as being universal salvation of 100% of mankind.
Universal atonement and/or Universal Salvation in biblicly untenable, and morphs into a false gospel message . . in all its various versions and formulas.
Would you explain this please?
Dispys= Dispensationalists.They believe that God gave one Gospel through Christ and his disciples to the Jews. Paul, at some point (different versions of Dispensationalism say assert this occurred at different times) is supposed to have received through revelation a new Gospel, a Gospel for the gentiles. They use this division to take anything they don't like - like being required to do the Lord's will to be saved - and they assert that was purely intended for the Jews under their Gospel. Meanwhile the Gentiles get the easy life where nothing is really required of them. Naturally all Dispys would themselves fall under the easy Gospel.
It's really quite silly - they try to divide Christians from Israel, but Christians are part of Israel. It is through our connection with Israel, having been grafted on, that we share in their blessings and promises.
Furthermore, Dispensationalism makes God entirely unjust - showing partiality to the Gentiles, who have little to no requirements on them for their salvation, whereas everything is demanded from the Jews. This is sinful and unscriptural.
There is more than one gospel in the Bible. Anyone who can walk through the forest without bumping into the trees can see that!
Dispys= Dispensationalists.They believe that God gave one Gospel through Christ and his disciples to the Jews. Paul, at some point (different versions of Dispensationalism say assert this occurred at different times) is supposed to have received through revelation a new Gospel, a Gospel for the gentiles. They use this division to take anything they don't like - like being required to do the Lord's will to be saved - and they assert that was purely intended for the Jews under their Gospel. Meanwhile the Gentiles get the easy life where nothing is really required of them. Naturally all Dispys would themselves fall under the easy Gospel.
CS is basically a kid with a lot of heresies and a high opinion of his theology. He may balk at this, but in a nutshell, I think this is important background for context when reading him because he feigns some kind of authority, yet pretty much goes off on his own with interpretation of both scripture and his 'ideas' about things like Dispensationalism. Dispensationalism is a complex systematic theology. His one-sentence reviews aren't very helpful. I'm not a dispensationalist, just know enough to say the one line is his opinion. Acts 15:29 and Galatians among other passages does imply that Jews and gentiles observing Christianity wasn't the same.Perhaps someone will respond to this.
Which of the following statements do you disagree with and why?
There is one Gospel
1 Corinthians 15:3-4 is the Gospel
Paul preached the Gospel to unbelievers
Therefore Paul told unbelievers 'Christ died for our sins'.
Agreed.
I Cor. 15:1-4 is one expression of the gospel message, but not the exhaustive gospel message. The entire bible is the Gospel revealed by God.
Agreed. Paul also preached the Gospel to saved souls . . . so?
Who is "our" in your estimation?
I have answered you and you continue to return to the same position. You seem to ignore any answer you disagree with.I don't see how citing Romans 15:20 damages my argument. Please explain why?
That is an assertion without proof. Which of the following statements do you disagree with?
The passage is an institution of the Supper, hence cup-blood. Who celebrates the Supper? I think you know. Again, you are playing hermeneutical hopscotch hoping to make an argument that is simply not possible.Also:
Luke 22:20-22
In the same way, after the supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you. But the hand of him who is going to betray me is with mine on the table. The Son of Man will go as it has been decreed. But woe to that man who betrays him!”
Jesus' blood would be poured out for Judas. That is what Jesus says. No attempt is made to exclude Judas from that which Jesus' shed blood would achieve.
Was not all the church of Jesus Christ unbelieving before being born again?
CS is basically a kid with a lot of heresies and a high opinion of his theology. He may balk at this, but in a nutshell, I think this is important background for context when reading him because he feigns some kind of authority, yet pretty much goes off on his own with interpretation of both scripture and his 'ideas' about things like Dispensationalism. Dispensationalism is a complex systematic theology. His one-sentence reviews aren't very helpful. I'm not a dispensationalist, just know enough to say the one line is his opinion. Acts 15:29 and Galatians among other passages does imply that Jews and gentiles observing Christianity wasn't the same.