Did Christ die for all men?

beloved57

Well-known member
To teach that Christ died for men and women that wind up in the second death, is to teach that Christ death was a failure, it failed to save.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
You move the goal posts and try another verse. Yet nothing therein supports your "therefore" conclusion that Paul told unbelievers "Christ died for our sins." You import what Paul was saying to the saints at Corinth into some generalization without warrant.

AMR

He certainly did. The game must be fairly played or the player will be tossed out of court.

Sonnet is very DECEPTIVE. Sleight of hand with the Scripture is not a sign of an innocent "seeker". I looked back to find this post because the attempt to deceive is still being carried out.



]Quote Originally Posted by Sonnet View Post
There is one Gospel.
1 Corinthians 15:3-4 is the Gospel.
Paul preached the Gospel to unbelievers (Romans 15:20).
Therefore Paul told unbelievers, 'Christ died for our sins'.

And we conclude that Christ died for all men without exception.

The closer I look the more suspicious I become. What motive behind this attempt to deceive? The saints at Corinth had already believed the Gospel. :think:

Watch closely, brethren. Our battle is not with flesh and blood.
 
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