Originally posted by natewood3
GIT,
I also see no reason not to "jump" to that conclusion...If God doesn't control all the "microdetails," then why are we sure He controls the "macrodetails"? Where does the Bible draw that line?
Hold on here. I said that God was
in control, not that he controls all things. Do you agree or disagree that one can be in control of a situation without controlling all the things that occur inside of it?
The point I am making is that in two salvation passages (Eph. 1 and Rom. 8), our faith is never mentioned as a reason that we are saved. God is though. Not to say that faith doesn't play a part, because it does. However, I find it hard to say faith is our work, especially in light of what we have said of faith in other threads.
I think that faith is partly us and partly God. By faith we accept the gospel as truth and believe in God for our hope. We all know we are sinners and I think we all know that we’ve messed up in life and done things we shouldn’t have done. We also know that if there is no God than we shouldn’t feel bad for any of those things. They would instead feel natural and there would be no conviction in one’s heart for those things.
So we also know that we have done things we shouldn’t have and gone against what the person who put those convictions there wants. We also know that this person is God. Romans 1 makes this very clear. Thus, we know we need forgiveness from God for the things we did wrong. Thus, we all have the ability innately to turn to God and say “God, I know I’ve done things I shouldn’t have. I’ve done things you didn’t want me to do. Please forgive me of these things and help me to sin no more but to live in according to what is right.�
The part of faith I believe that is God’s part is seeing Christ for who he really is, accepting that salvation is by grace, and a complete turn around from the sin we used to live in. you also noted some things in another thread about what God does when we are saved to which I would add here as well.
As for the passages not mentioning this, I ask why does it need to? If Paul is simply explaining to us and praising God for his work in our salvation and our sanctification, and also remembering that it was written to believers who had already put their faith in Christ, then I see no real reason or purpose to explain what they already knew and had already done.
I agree. I think the question is not can we have faith, but why do we have faith when we do. Once again, look at the essence of faith and I don't think it is simply because it seems like the right thing to do...
I think we have faith partly because we know we are sinners and in need of forgiveness and partly because God reveals himself to us.
I see no problem really with that...my point was there are some who have faith in Christ, and some don't. It is not as if all have faith in Christ and they just have to "accept it" or something like that...
I was not trying to say that all have faith in Christ and had to “accept it� or anything like that. Sorry for the confusion. All I was saying is that we all have faith (or trust and hope) in something. We all have the capacity to turn towards Christ and put that faith in him, but many of us choose not to.
The thing about that verse is those in the flesh CANNOT submit to the law of God. They are unable. Is repentance part of God's law?
Do you really think God would command the impossible from us? Would he command us to grow wings? Would he command us to walk to the moon? Would he command us to drink the pacific ocean? Thus, I see it as reasonable that anything God commands us to do is something we have the ability to do. It may be hard, we may not like it, but we are able.
Here are the two verses we are talking about:
7the sinful mind[6] is hostile to God. It does not submit to God's law, nor can it do so. 8Those controlled by the sinful nature cannot please God.
Now in verse 7 it says that the “sinful mind� is hostile to God. It doesn’t mean that the entire person is hostile, just that the sinful mind is. Clearly there is more to a person than just their mind. There is the heart, soul, will etc. verse 8 says “it does not submit to God’s law nor can it do so�. This is about the sinful mind. But as I already stated, there is more to a person than the mind. There is the heart, soul and will for starters. So, if a person decides to come to their senses and stop living according to the sinful mind and doing what they know is wrong, I believe they can ask for forgiveness, repent and God does the rest from there.
Act 17:30 The times of ignorance God overlooked, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent.
According to Paul, unbelievers are unable to submit to that because they are constantly living according to the flesh. I agree, if they repent, they can please God. By themselves, they CANNOT repent. What makes that less that "total INABILITY" (cannot/unable)?
See above.
I don't think so. The OV God does NOT love me like the God of the Bible [
]. Christ loved me and the rest of His Bride in a way different from the rest of mankind. It was a special love. There is NO REASON WHATSOEVER IN ME why He chose to love me. It was His good pleasure.
Before you were born God could not have loved you except in the way of a thought or a future thing. He could not love you the same way he loves you now because you didn’t exist then and you do exist now. Furthermore, if that is the case, what do you make of this verse?
Galatians 4:9
But now that you know God–or rather
are known by God–how is it that you are turning back to those weak and miserable principles? Do you wish to be enslaved by them all over again?
If God knew you all the way back at the cross personally, then this verse should be a lie right? How could God have known you personally all the way back then and then claim to start knowing you again for the first time once you believe? It cannot be both. God cannot have exhaustively, personally, and individually known you forever in eternity and on the cross and claim that when you believe that you are “now known by God�.
And once again I add that our theology should not be built upon what theology says God love us more or which one seems to say that God cares most about us. It should be about truth as found in the word of God—the bible.
How did Christ die for "possible sins" that we not yet sins since they did not exist? Is there any possible text to prove that? Or would it have to be proven by presuppositions and logic?
Because his death is not something where sins were sort of “put on him� literally. It was a sacrifice in our place, bearing the punishment we deserved as the result of our sins. He lived perfectly and as such was able to pay the price he himself did not deserve, but that every one of us deserves when we sin. Thus, his righteousness is imputed to us by faith in
that work because though we are guilty, he was innocent.
There are many scriptures that support this idea if you are interested.
That is not comforting at all to hear that Christ only loved a non-person. How in the world can Christ love a non-person? He cannot know that which does not exist, and He cannot love that which does not exist.
What’s comforting is irrelevant. What’s important is truth. If the bible says God had all the women and children killed then that’s what happened regardless of how we feel about it.
also, are you saying that all people today were people back then? What else would they be besides “non-persons�? they couldn’t have been people like they are now because they didn’t exist.
Pinnock has said, "God's openness means that God is open to the changing realities of history, that God cares abot us and lets what we do impact Him. Our lives make a difference to God--they are truly significant. God is delighted when we trust Him and saddened when we rebel against Him. God made us significant creatues and treats us as such."
The OV wants to make God personal and loving and caring, but yet when they throw away the fact that God loved specific people personally, WHILE THEY WERE YET SINNERS (how can God love sinners when they are not yet sinners???),
The WE in that verse is about all of mankind. It’s about the human race as a whole, yourself included. While humans were sinners, Christ died for us. Furthermore, if God has exhaustive foreknowledge of the future, then in what sense did Christ die for us “while we were yet sinners�?
To quote from Greg Boyd’s website:
“While we were yet sinners?�
Rom. 5.7-8:
“Why, one will hardly die for a righteous man -- though perhaps for a good man one will dare even to die. But God shows his love for us in that while we were yet sinners Christ died for us.�
If God possess exhaustive definite foreknowledge, in what sense then did Christ die for us “while we were yet sinners�? In the accompanying analogy, Paul CONTRASTS the rare willingness of a person to die even for somebody who (relatively speaking) deserves to be saved with Christ’s death for people who (in contrast to the righteous man) offer no guarantee of a return on the investment. That is, we may die for a righteous or good man because good men are likely to “pay it forward� via their goodness. Our readiness to die in this case is determined by the likelihood that the person we are dying for will make our death worthwhile.
However, Paul CONTRASTS this with Christ’s death for us “while we were yet sinners.� Think through the implications of this. Both the deterministic and simple foreknowledge views of the future rob this analogy of its effect on readers, for the needed contrast between the analogy of how/why we die only rarely for good people and how/why Jesus died for us “while we were sinners� is entirely lost. If a) Christ dies for those he has elected from eternity only, or b) God knows that so-and-so will in fact receive him, become a righteous person and bring forth fruit, then it makes no sense to contrast Christ’s death for me “while I was a sinner� with our willingness to die for people who promise a return on our investment. If God is certain of the return he will get on his investment (because he already knows for whom Christ’s death will be effective), then Christ’s death is not dissimilar to the way we die for others. But Paul insists it IS different.
End of quote by Boyd.
God becomes depersonalized and not the God of the Bible, Who loved His Bride and gave Himself for HER. We are no longer foreloved, predestined to be sons, etc, etc. God just loved a non-person who He didn't even know would exist. That is not the love of the God of the Bible as I perceive it...
You can’t love someone who doesn’t exist any more or less whether you know they will be born or not. They still don’t exist and anything you feel towards them is just one sided and unfulfilled. Also consider how much more it displays God’s love towards us in that God didn’t even know which people would be born, but he gave a sacrifice that would suffice for all of them. He went out on a limb and did what he didn’t need to for people he didn’t know would exist! It’s one thing to die for specific people you know and love, but how much greater is the love that someone gives for people he
does not know! Who has the greater love, someone who dies to save his relatives, or someone who dies to give all people to come a chance for salvation? I think the answer is obvious.
So now God hated entire nations, not just individuals? What is more devastating, hating individuals or entire nations???
It’s about the nation of Israel who because of unbelief was cutoff. Thus, God turned to those who were not a nation (the gentiles) and called people from among them to be his people. The term “hate� in that passage is another word for saying “rejected�. In other words, Jacob I chose, Esau I rejected.
I understand how your "interpreting" it, but your reading into the text. Where does it speak of these things being after we accepted the gospel???
Where does it say it was before?
How are we still "free" if God is working in us to will and do His good pleasure? I do not see how these verses are consistent with your view...
because God works with our free will to bring about good. Nothing God does in us contradicts free will. Remember also that we have been regenerated and long for God to do things through us, giving God a much easier time in using us for good works.
Also, I think you missed that we are COMMANDED to do these things, yet they are produced by God. How can God command us to do something that only He can produce? That is the thing the OV says God cannot do...
Because they are not
only done by God. It is both of us who does them. God commands us to do them and works in us and helps us to bring it about.
Could you explain how you read them?
Pro 16:1 The plans of the heart belong to man, but the answer of the tongue is from the LORD.
First off let me remind you that proverbs are general statements that the authors wrote down about what they saw as true in the world around them. They are not always absolutes. For example, one may say “the wicked will not prosper� but obviously they sometimes do. Thus, in general they will not and they will not prosper forever, but if we took it literally and absolutely, it would be wrong.
That said, I think this verse is talking about how anything we do is ultimately allowed by God. A straight forward reading of the text might suggest that every word we say is from God, but should we really hold such a view? That would mean that every swear word, every word of hate, every misuse of the Lord’s name is from God. Surely this is not so. Also, it would render the phrase “the word of the Lord� meaningless as every word would become “the word of the Lord�. Thus, I see it as saying that all of our actions are allowed by God as he is sovereign. We plan in our hearts what to do, but if God doesn’t want it to happen, he won’t let us do it. I believe that can be done without affecting free will in any way.
Pro 16:9 The heart of man plans his way, but the LORD establishes his steps.
I see this as basically the same as above except that God also sends events into our lives as he wishes (plagues, famine etc.) and thus, he can establish our steps as well as simply allowing the ones we decide to take on our own.
Pro 21:1 The king's heart is a stream of water in the hand of the LORD; he turns it wherever he will.
Remember Pharaoh? Bear in mind that just because God can affect our hearts it does not mean our free will has been tampered with.
So God isn't the One who gives life and the One by whom all things consist?
Where did I ever suggest that?
Rom 11:33 Oh, the depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments and how inscrutable his ways!
Rom 11:34 "For who has known the mind of the Lord, or who has been his counselor?"
Rom 11:35 "Or who has given a gift to him that he might be repaid?"
Rom 11:36 For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be glory forever. Amen.
Where do all things come from?
All things exist by God’s power so ultimately they come from him. But unless you wish to make God the author of sin, I think you’ll agree that even though it’s by God’s power that they are done, we are the ones who use that power to do evil things.
He knows what you will actually DO.
That’s nonsense. I haven’t done them yet. And if I have free will, then there exists a degree of uncertainty by definition such that it’s impossible to know with 100% accuracy what I will do before I do it. furthermore, I see little biblical support for such a view.
That is simply a logical argument of bringing God down to our level. We cannot know what someone will do because they haven't done it yet. Therefore, God must not be able to know what will happen either, because it hasn't happened yet.
That’s logical through the definition of
free will. The only way God can know absolutely for certain what we will is if we don’t have free will.
We are not the reference point and standard by which God's attributes are judged and explained...we are made like Him; He is not made like us.
Are you saying God is illogical? Are you saying he’s outside of reality? The bottom line is that the two concepts (free will and exhaustive foreknowledge) are mutually exclusive in reality. They cannot co-exist no matter how hard one wants them to.
I do not think that Calvin taught we do not make real decisions or that foreknowledge negates free will.
I hope he didn’t teach that we don’t make real decisions, I certainly believe we have them
however, logic was not as developed as a train of thought then as it is today and thus he couldn’t see the logical problem with the two concepts. That doesn’t change the present logical dilemma however. They are still mutually exclusive.
Your assumption is that we can act "out of character." I do not know that we ever act in a way that is not in accordance with our desires, which may or may not be in accordance with our true character.
A debate for another day perhaps
It is your choice; God just happens to know what choice you will choose.
Then I’m not free to choose apart from what God says I will choose. When the situation comes around I will not be free to choose what I decide to choose, I will only be able to “choose� what God “knows� I will choose. I am not free in this case.
If God knows that you will watch tv, it is because He knows you would watch tv in that situation!
That argues against the whole idea of free will! Free will says that you
cannot know what someone will do even though you can know what they
might or are
likely to do. If God knows I will watch tv because he knows that I would watch it in that situation, then I have become a 100% predictable being who is thus not free. A being that is free, by definition cannot be 100% predictable. That’s the whole meaning of
free.
It isn't because He forced or coerced you to make you watch tv just because He knew it. He knew it because He knows our hearts and motives and desires, and therefore knows how we will act actually and knows how we could have otherwise acted.
See above.
We are free to do whatever we please.
Not if God knows with 100% accuracy what we are going to do before we do it.
God is more so. God gives you the choice to watch tv or to not. He can know what you will choose, and He can know if something small was changed, then you would have chosen otherwise.
If I’m really free then all he can know is what I might choose or what I’m likely to choose. He can know what percentage the possibility of me choosing a particular choice is, but he cannot know for certain what I’ll do if I’m really free.
If you have nothing to do, and it is around the time when you sit down to watch sports everyday, then God knows what you will choose certainly without causing it. If you get ready to sit down to watch tv and get a phone call saying your child is in the hospital, then God knows you could sit down to watch tv still; that is a possibility.
how does God know it? I haven’t done it yet. The only way he can know it is to cause it, unless I don’t have free will and am just like a robot, completely predictable. In the last sentence, it could not be a possibility. Nothing is a possibility if God has EFK (exhaustive foreknowledge). Everything is certain. There is no possibilities or any sense of contingency if God has EFK.
However, He certainly knows what you will do, and yet you are free to make that decision. You could have done otherwise, but God just knew what you would do when given the choice, and He decreed that that choice would be so and certainly come to pass, which is why you were still free and God still ordains all things.
I see no biblical, logical, experiential or rational reason to believe this.
In Christ,
GIT