Closed: God exists outside of time, creating time (or the impression of time); here God knows all time: present, past and futre.Originally posted by God_Is_Truth
can you explain how the future could be both open and closed?
Originally posted by STONE
Closed: God exists outside of time, creating time (or the impression of time); here God knows all time: present, past and futre.
Open: God also inhabits time, and here also relates to man according to the reality of man within time.
Here time, choices, decisions, events unfold before both God and man.
Depends on what context you are referring to. E.g., Ps 1:1, David does not refer to the same "ungodly" as Paul does in Ro 4:5 and 5:6.Originally posted by drbrumley
Who were (are) the unGodly Hilston?
Ro 5:6 refers to the elect of the Body of Christ. Not to the elect of the Kingdom (Jews and Gentiles of their respective dispensations). Paul's descriptions could not have applied to elect Israel (Peter for example) because, contrary to Paul's description, elect Israel was not "without strength" or "enemies" (Ro 5:10).Originally posted by drbrumley
The reason I ask is because in Romans 5:6 it says: For when we were still without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
You're welcome. Thank you for your questions.Originally posted by drbrumley
By the way, thank you for at least corresponding with me about this.
"For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said"Originally posted by godrulz
Is eternity timelessness/'eternal now'? (pagan Greek philosophy)
I think you mean coherent for man to understand, or as in relating to man.Time must be an aspect of God's xperience or He is impersonal (no will, intellect, emotions, actions...these require sequence/duration to be coherent).
On the contrary, I not only distinguish between the grounds (foundational basis) of salvation and the conditions of salvation, but also the reasons (decretive purpose) behind salvation and the various aspects of Biblical soteriology (moral salvation, temporal salvation, sempiternal salvation, etc.).Originally posted by godrulz
Jim fails to distinguish, as Scripture does, the grounds (reason for which) of salvation from the conditions (not without which) of salvation.
Of course. Why would I make distinctions about something I view as patently unbiblical and logically untenable?Originally posted by godrulz
He also does not distinguish the universal, efficacious provision for all men and the appropriation by some men.
Don't forget, godrulz, I have ample scripture to support this thesis.Originally posted by godrulz
In the end, many are lost and perish. His view, in his mind, seems like a total victory because He supposedly saved all he intended to.
Whenever an Open Theist, or quasi-Open Theist mentions the word "love," I request a definition. I don't think you guys know what it means. Now's your chance. Then we can talk about how my view of God is more loving than yours.Originally posted by godrulz
This diminishes his love because He does not save many that He could have saved.
Originally posted by Hilston
"Come to Me [because My work is not intrinsically sufficient], all who are weary and heavy-laden, and [then, on that contingency] I will give you rest.
"You search the Scriptures, because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is these that bear witness of Me; and you are unwilling to come to Me [which is prerequisite to having life, because My work was not sufficient], that you may have life."
"For this reason I have said to you, that no one can come to Me [but come, you must, because My work is not sufficient to get the job done], unless it has been granted him from the Father."
"If any man is thirsty, let him come to Me and drink [and come, and drink, he must, because My work was not sufficient in itself to get the job done]."
"... Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God were entreating through us; we beg you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God[because My work alone is not sufficient to reconcile you]."
"And he called for lights and rushed in and, trembling with fear, he fell down before Paul and Silas, and after he brought them out, he said, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved [since the work of Christ is not sufficient]?" And they said, "Believe in the Lord Jesus [because the work of Christ is not sufficient], and you shall be saved, you and your household."
"For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that [partly] of yourselves [because Christ's work was not sufficient], it is the gift of God [that has a contingency of prerequisite action by sinner]."
"...God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth [but actually did do quite enough to save them, since they must actually save themselves by accepting the provision of Christ's work]."
Originally posted by Hilston
Depends on what context you are referring to. E.g., Ps 1:1, David does not refer to the same "ungodly" as Paul does in Ro 4:5 and 5:6.
Ro 5:6 refers to the elect of the Body of Christ. Not to the elect of the Kingdom (Jews and Gentiles of their respective dispensations). Paul's descriptions could not have applied to elect Israel (Peter for example) because, contrary to Paul's description, elect Israel was not "without strength" or "enemies" (Ro 5:10).
Originally posted by drbrumley
True, but if you notice, Open Thiesm includes what we are discussing. It goes hand in hand. To prove or disprove, you must first deal with foreknowledge. Did God foreknew that you were going to accept the gracious gift etc.....?
Originally posted by STONE
"For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said"
I think you mean coherent for man to understand, or as in relating to man.
Is it too deterministic to say that God gave man will and discernment?Originally posted by godrulz
Despite 1ways denial, Open Theism is considered a sub-type of Arminianism. It values the sovereignty of God (properly understood) and the free will (moral agency) of man. Hyper-Calvinism is deterministic and sees God's will as the only factor.
Originally posted by Hilston
1) On the contrary, I not only distinguish between the grounds (foundational basis) of salvation and the conditions of salvation, but also the reasons (decretive purpose) behind salvation and the various aspects of Biblical soteriology (moral salvation, temporal salvation, sempiternal salvation, etc.).
2) Don't forget, godrulz, I have ample scripture to support this thesis.
3) Whenever an Open Theist, or quasi-Open Theist mentions the word "love," I request a definition. I don't think you guys know what it means. Now's your chance. Then we can talk about how my view of God is more loving than yours.
Originally posted by Sozo
I would rather doubt that God is amused by your mockery of His message concerning Christ.
You just don't get it, Jim.
In order for someone to save themselves, it has to be done their way, and according to their own plan and effort.
God has chosen how man will be saved, and unless we submit to His plan, no man will be saved.
His plan includes the death, burial, and resurrection of His Son.
His plan includes the shedding of Jesus blood for the propitiation of sins for the whole world and the redemption, and reconciliation which are found in Christ alone.
His plan requires that we repent of unbelief and receive His grace through faith as a gift.
His plan includes the exchange of our life for His, which is our salvation.
His plan requires that we come to Christ and not reject His way of salvation.
YOU, Jim, do not like God's plan, because you prefer to tell God that His plan is only sufficient if you do not have to respond.
YOU, Jim, do not like God's plan, because it requires you to humble yourself, and admit that you are in need of a savior. YOU would rather He just do it, without your acceptance of His love, grace, & mercy.
YOUR religion, makes me sick, and is an insult to the blood that Jesus shed for ALL men.
Originally posted by STONE
Is it too deterministic to say that God gaves man will and discernment?
You are correct as to His revelation; at the same time you limit God to what we can comprehend, if I am understanding you.Originally posted by godrulz
No. It is not a mere anthropomorphism for our understanding. It is a revelation of His relation to history (His Story).
You were talking about time "duration of time=sequence, succession"..."live, and move, and have our being";The quote from Acts relates to omnipresence, not omniscience.
I don't mock God's message, but your perversion of it, as well as your blatantly incoherent assertions.Originally posted by Sozo
I would rather doubt that God is amused by your mockery of His message concerning Christ.
Who says? By your logic, if I shoot an intruder with my Glock 9mm according to the manufacturer's instructions and in accordance with NRA guidelines, I did not save myself from the intruder. Glock and the NRA did.Originally posted by Sozo
In order for someone to save themselves, it has to be done their way, and according to their own plan and effort.
I agree. But on your view, man must act in order to make effectual an otherwise insufficient work of Christ.Originally posted by Sozo
God has chosen how man will be saved, and unless we submit to His plan, no man will be saved.
I agree.Originally posted by Sozo
His plan includes the death, burial, and resurrection of His Son.
I agree.Originally posted by Sozo
His plan includes the shedding of Jesus blood for the propitiation of sins for the whole world and the redemption, and reconciliation which are found in Christ alone.
I agree.Originally posted by Sozo
His plan requires that we repent of unbelief and receive His grace through faith as a gift.
I agree.Originally posted by Sozo
His plan includes the exchange of our life for His, which is our salvation.
I agree.Originally posted by Sozo
His plan requires that we come to Christ and not reject His way of salvation.
Um ... see above.Originally posted by Sozo
YOU, Jim, do not like God's plan, ...
Scriptures tell me that. So does logic. Logic will enable you to distinguish between being justified before God (Ro 5:9) and being justified before men (Ro 4:2) and being justified before oneself (Ro 4:3-5).Originally posted by Sozo
... because you prefer to tell God that His plan is only sufficient if you do not have to respond.
This is funny. My view requires the utmost humility, because we cannot even claim the merit of choosing to submit to Christ. On my view, it is all God's doing, full sufficiency; and none of my doing. I can actually say that Christ saved me. You cannot. You can proudly boast that you had the good sense to choose Christ and to appropriate His life to yourself. There is no humility there; you've become your own savior.Originally posted by Sozo
YOU, Jim, do not like God's plan, because it requires you to humble yourself, and admit that you are in need of a savior.
I appreciate my own depravity in contrast to God's holiness. My carnal mind was not able to submit to God's requirements (Ro 8:7). So Christ saved me from my own carnal mind and depravity. I can say Christ saved me and died specifically for me and secured my eternity with Him because He loved me personally. There is no personal and specific love on your view. It's generic and impersonal. The most you can say is that you were smart enough to choose a blanket provision that was universally offered to everyone.Originally posted by Sozo
YOU would rather He just do it, without your acceptance of His love, grace, & mercy.
I'm not the one whose assertions declare insufficiency in Christ's work. This all started with you hypocritically accusing someone else of disrespecting the blood of Christ. How fitting that we've come to this point again. The difference is, this time, you've abundantly demonstrated that it is you yourself who insult the work of Christ. You do so by assertions that logically require you to admit that Christ's work was insufficient to accomplish salvation for anyone. It's merely a provision, and man must become his own savior. On your view, no one can say the blood of Christ saved them from hell. The most they can say it, "I saved myself by appropriating the universal provision of Christ."Originally posted by Sozo
YOUR religion, makes me sick, and is an insult to the blood that Jesus shed for ALL men.
-If His personal image is defaced, how do we have "libertarian" free will?Originally posted by godrulz
-We are in the moral and personal image of God. His image is defaced, not erased. Total depravity does not mean total inability.
-Ultimately, who we are is from the hand of God. He is Creator; we are creature. God gave us free moral agency as a gift. This is why we are morally responsible and accountable. This is why God is not culpable for evil.
-He gives us will and discernment, but we have an element of self-determination (vs fatalism) that inherently has the possibility of using or misusing the faculties He gives us. We can love or hate, love or be selfish.