ARGH!!! Open Theism makes me furious!!!

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Reply to Clete's post #220:

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
It just seems that you read more hostility into than is intended.
Coming from you, this doesn't mean much, Clete. You're the reigning champion of overreaction.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I really believe that all Knight wanted was for you to make a real argument instead of just lobbing emotional stink bombs.
You really need to go back and read that. Knight started it. I answered in kind, quite cogently. You said nothing to Knight for his emotional stink bomb. Double standard, Clete. That's what stinks.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
While I know you've made substantive arguments before, it does seem sometimes that you're not interested to really debating but just scoring cheap points for impact.
We all do it, Clete. It's quite effective. You and Knight both have done it to the point of being disgusting.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
And I'm sure it is true that Knight reads more hostility into your posts than is there as well. The point being, nobodies perfect. All this just seems a bit overly sensitive to me.
You're still missing the point. I was called unchristian and unfriendly for it. But when Open Theists do it, they get a pass.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
There is no double standard, at least not an intentional one.
The double standard is never intentional. But the blindness to it is deliberate. That's what needs to be exposed.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I don’t really think Knight believes that saying such things is unfriendly and unchristian but that it is when that's all you seem to do and then refuse to substantiate your statements. Maybe I'm wrong.
I see no apology forthcoming. In PMs, he has been utterly defiant.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
He gets no pass. If his intent was as you suggest then he was wrong for having said what he said. It seems to me however that he was simply trying to draw you out, albeit ineffectively.
You're a good friend, Clete. You're giving him the benefit of the doubt. It's interesting that when Knight called me a friend and said he expected more from me, I wasn't afforded the same friendly courtesy.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Yes, no one denies that such figures exist. The problem is that the text cannot be saying that God didn't repent when the whole context of the statement makes it clear that God was unhappy about the condition of things.
I'll show you what I mean...

Gen 6:6 And it repented the LORD that He had made man on the earth, and it grieved Him at his heart.

There is no way to read this passage and get that God was happy with the situation on the Earth.
No one claims otherwise. You clearly don't know what anthropopathism means, or at least how it applies.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
He did kill everybody, so we know that he really was upset.
Agreed, but do you realize that saying "he was really upset" is to verbally describe God's anger in an anthropopathic way?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
So if the figure here is saying the opposite of what it seems to be saying then how does the second half of the sentence fit with the first?
Both are figurative, Clete.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
It just simply cannot mean the opposite unless the whole thing is a figure that means the opposite of what it says, in which case God would not be grieved at His heart but encouraged!
You just don't get it. To say God is encouraged is also an anthropopathic description. The figure is not based on the difference between grief and encouragement but rather between human feelings and Divine feelings. You should already know this, Clete. How long have you been debating this? That's what I find so annoying. After all this time (20+ years as a Calvinist?) just don't know what you're talking about, but you go on and on as if you do.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
But if that is true then why did he wipe out the whole planet minus 8 people? It just doesn't make any sense!
Of course not. That should tell you one of two things: Either (a) you don't understand the argument of your opponent, or (b) your opponent is an imbecile. You've conceded that I'm not an imbecile, so that leaves (a).

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Give a title and author of a book or article that addresses this issue head on and I will promise to read it. How’s that?

I personally have told you at least a half dozen times that if you have something to teach me, do it. I wasn’t kidding.
Lots of people say this, Clete. Why haven't you learned this stuff on your own? Why do you have to be shamed into this? How long have you been debating so-called Calvinists and you still don't know this stuff?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I have actually looked a few things concerning this Presuppositionalism thing you espouse. All of it either makes little or no sense or it bares no resemblance to anything I've ever seen you post. This is why I have asked you about it more than once before (with no response, by the way).
Presuppositionalism is the biblical form of debate. I rarely venture outside of it. Whenever I do wander, I always get popped, so I try to avoid that. Since it's one of my favorite subjects, it's highly unlikely that you didn't get a response from me. It's probably more like you didn't understand the response, which is more than likely because it isn't an easy concept to grasp right off the bat. That's not due to any failure or deficit of scriptural apologetics, but rather to the pervasive and ubiquitous use of unbiblical apologetics in Christendom.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I explained myself when I said it but for the sake of clarity. Yes, God would love it if everyone in the world responded to Him in faith. There are none that He would turn away.
So then it's NOT an overstatement to say that God wants to save more than He can?

Hilston wrote: Once again, you've missed the point. The Open Theist God has a problem. God wants to save more than He can, because of His stipulated standards. The determinist view has no such problem.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
How is this a “problem�? God would be justified in sending every last person to Hell if He wished.
You wouldn't have a problem with that? Justified means "right." Are you saying that God would be right for sending every last person to Hell for no other reason than it was according to what "He wished"?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
The salvation of even one soul would be a great victory for God.
Not according to scripture. It's all or nothing with God. There are no acceptable losses. He will save every single one He loves, without exception.

Mt. 18:11 For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost. 12 How think ye? if a man have an hundred sheep, and one of them be gone astray, doth he not leave the ninety and nine, and goeth into the mountains, and seeketh that which is gone astray? 13 And if so be that he find it, verily I say unto you, he rejoiceth more of that sheep, than of the ninety and nine which went not astray. 14 Even so it is not the will of your Father which is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
That’s one soul less than what would have gone to Hell otherwise.
Open Theists like to talk about some innate sense of justice. Doesn't that innate thing tell you there's something wrong when God's highest creation, by the vast majority, prefers Satan to God? Doesn't your innate sense of score-keeping tell you that God is a Big Loser if His own special pinnacle creation, by the vast majority, doesn't want anything to do with Him?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
You seem to forget that the whole kit and caboodle was condemned in Adam the moment he fell in the Garden.
On the contrary, no one is condemned for the sins of their ancestors. They pay for their own sins and no one else's. The idea of inheriting the guilt of Adam's original sin is unbiblical.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
If God had “cut His losses� as you put it, none of us would be here and millions of saved souls would never have existed.
On your view, that would be the case. On my view, there are zero losses.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
So my version of God is a big loser, and yours is the author of evil and the creator of beings designed specifically and only for His wrath.
Nice stink bomb.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I’ll take a just and righteous loser over the author of evil any day of the week and twice on Sundays, thank you very much.
So be it.

Hilston wrote: It's not weakness I'm implying. It is incoherence. How could a God who wants all men to be saved and to come to the saving knowledge of Christ sit by and watch scores of people plummet into hell?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
With a heavy heart, full of sorrow and grief over the needless tragedy of it, that’s how.
That's what I'm talking about. My God is joyful. There is joy in heaven. My God is not subject to mood swings, or an emotional victim of the actions of others. He is in control of His own state of mind, not psychologically tossed to and fro by actions of finite men. There is no sorrow in the Third Heaven. No grief. What you call a "needless tragedy" is God's doing, according to your view, Clete. He could stop it all today and prevent scores and scores of people from plunging into hell, but He doesn't? Why?

Hilston wrote: Statistically, He is losing big-time (hence the term, Big Loser), and any economist, statistician or gambler would suggest He cut His losses and end it all right now. The "God Who Risks" is betting against the house, and He loses big every single day.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
It’s a matter of perspective I suppose. It seems to me that you are not qualified to make such an assessment anyway. God obviously thinks it worthwhile to do things the way He is doing them, and He’s smarter than the both of us put together.
You've begged the very question. My view is coherent. Yours relegates your thinking to the kind of response you just offered above: "It's a matter of perspective, I suppose." Doesn't your innate ability to keep score tell you that the God of Open Theism is a Big Loser? And that His loss grows exponentially with the population and mortality rates of the human race?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Nope on the contrary Jim, to get what I think that verse says all anyone has to do is read it no specialized knowledge is needed at all accept an ability to read. A third grader who knows nothing at all about theology could read and understand it perfectly.
You've begged the question again, Clete. You're assuming you have perfect understanding of the passage. You've committed a logical fallacy.

Hilston wrote: I already knew that is what you think. It's Open View arrogance. I've seen it before. Open Theists just can't fathom the possibility that their view could be wrong, so they blithely dismiss it. If you really thought it was possible to be wrong, you'd stop at nothing to find out, much like I've stopped at nothing to investigate Open Theism. But you don't really care, do you?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
All I’m waiting on is someone to show me where I’m wrong. You up for it?
That's the difference between you and me. I don't wait around for someone to show me. I'll even put up with deliberate obfuscation and evasion to try to get answers to my questions. As to your question, I've led many horses to water, Clete. So your question is misdirected.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Oh yeah, heaven forbid that we actually ask someone to make an argument for the theology they believe on a web site which is in existence for that express purpose. Give me a break. Swordsman start this thread and titled it in a manner so as to make sure Knight (and probably myself) would be sure to engage him in a debate about Open Theism. What would you like for us to say…
“Uh Swordsman, I can’t respond to your mindless ranting right now, to do so would require that I rehash material I’ve already covered with Hilston on another thread and he said I don’t know what I’m talking about but didn’t explain what he meant or how I was wrong so I need to go read every post Jim’s ever written to see if he’s explained himself elsewhere and in addition he mention some guy named Pink so I need to read all his stuff too so that I know for sure that I know that Calvinism is heresy before I crush you into powder in this debate.�
You've missed the point entirely. The point is that you give every indication that you don't really care. If swordsman gave similar indications, sure, say whatever you want to him and refuse to answer his disingenuous questions (were that the case).

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I have read some of Calvin’s writing although admittedly very little. I’ve read a few different books (at least in part) by A.W. Pink – A Study of Dispensationalism, Gleanings in Genesis and Gleanings From Paul, maybe small portions of one or two more. I’ve read most of what is on a website that features the writings of a man names R.L Babney http://www.spurgeon.org/~phil/dabney.htm His is by far the one I’ve read the most of. I read Pink’s books when I was in high school, when I was still up to my neck in Calvinism myself. That’s been a long time ago. There are others, mostly modern authors like R.C. Sproul and John MacArthur and Charles Stanley. All of whom, by the way, teach the exact same tenets of Calvinism that I believed for the first 20+ years of my Christian life. I, for one, do not buy your assertion that we (open theists) are ignorant of what Calvinism actually teaches. The TULIP mnemonic device is relatively new and Dabney wrote before it was in common use but he would have agreed with it fully, as would have Pink and as far as anything I’ve seen so would Calvin, Luther, and Augustine.
I haven't complained about the use of TULIP, so I'm not sure why you're making this argument. My complaint is that you guys don't understand what you're critiquing and you just don't seem to care.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
This isn’t a complete list but in addition to books, I’ve also read lots of articles, mainly on the internet, by various authors whom I couldn’t begin to name. I usually end up reading them because someone claims that they “do the best job of defending their beliefs that they’ve ever seen, blah, blah, blah� So, I’ll read it and discover that they use the exact same arguments that you and others here on TOL use, the exact same ones, sometimes verbatim.
Then you should be pretty skilled at refuting them by now. What is baffling to me is that you spent 20+ years as a Calvinist and you still don't know this stuff. You must've gone to the same church as Poly.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Anthropopathisms are figures of speech that attribute the attributes of man to something other than a man (emotion, intellect, sight or another of the senses, etc). It is not quite the same thing as anthropomorphisms which attribute the form of man onto things other than men(arms, legs, eyes, etc). See, I knew that without even having to look it up! Have I read any books on the subject? Well, “Figures of Speech Used in the Bible� by E.W. Bullinger discusses this and I’ve read that portion of his book along with one or two others, but I have not read the entire volume.
Then this is even worse. You can give the definition off the top of your head, but when it comes to actually applying it to the text, your brain shuts off. Why do you go around accusing Calvinists of saying God felt the opposite emotion conveyed in the scriptures in question?

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
No I don’t. Guess what Jim, you don’t get to define what Calvinism is! Sproul is probably the leading Calvinist in this country at the moment and I just heard him less than a month ago say on national radio that God cannot change at all period.
If you want to use Sproul, that's fine. I don't presume to define Calvinism; I let history do that. My point is you don't care. That's my complaint.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
I think his exact words where “God is utterly immutable.� And then he went on for half an hour making the point painfully clear and explaining how this doesn’t cause the logical problems that one would intuitively think it would.
Did you understand what he taught on the subject? To test your understanding, ask yourself this: Do you find it surprising that Sproul teaches that that immutability refers to God's character and being, not his actions [Character of God, R.C. Sproul]? If it does surprise you, then you did not understand Sproul's teaching.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
C.S. Lewis, another prominent Calvinist whom I’ve read quite a bit said in his book “Miracles�, that “God cannot be touched by love.�, a statement about God’s impassibility, a related doctrine to immutability. And both he and Sproul used the same exact arguments that I’ve seen Swordsman and Z Man and other Calvinist on this site use to defend those beliefs. Are you going to suggest to us that R.C. Sproul and C.S. Lewis are a couple of half baked theologians like the rest of us here at TOL?
Nope. I'm suggesting that your Open Theism lenses and blinders prevent you from understanding anything more than you've already decided in advance.

Hilston wrote: While appreciate your kind remarks, and I sincerely desire to have a cordial and respectful discussion with you, your exit interview with Zman made me re-think even wanting to talk to you on the phone. Something told me that I was seeing my future.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Well, that won’t happen unless you start shooting blasphemies all over the place on threads where more than one unbeliever is known to be present and sure to read it.
He stated his beliefs, Clete, and you went ballistic. This isn't a church, Clete, where you have to take responsibility for what others teach. This is a public forum where debate is encouraged. Your public trashing of Zman served only to discourage debate.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Those sorts of things coming from an unbeliever do plenty of harm but are somewhat expected. But coming from someone who claims to be a follower of Christ, statements like that do dramatically more harm and must be staunchly and publicly opposed, especially in the presence of someone who is already a skeptic.
Good grief, Clete. No wonder you're so uptight. If I made it my mission to protect the TOL skeptics from false teaching, I wouldn't have time to breathe.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
You may disagree with my reasoning on this and I’m sure you disagree with the way I handled it but at least now you know how to avoid such treatment yourself.
You know what, Clete, those words sicken me. If I didn't know you at all and didn't care about you, I wouldn't give a fig. But when I see the ugly side of people I like, it sickens me.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Let me know if you would like to set up a phone call and we’ll figure out a time.
I would, despite the warnings going off in my head.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Hilston:

I do not believe in the classic Augustinian doctrine of 'original sin' nor the Federal Headship of Adam theory. Do I understand from a line in your last post that you also do not believe in this?

Sin is a wrong moral choice, not a substance passed on from Adam. The soul that sins is the one that will die (Ezekiel).

Would you agree that we are sinners because we sin (volitional), and not that we sin because we are born sinners (genetic)?
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
http://mywebpages.comcast.net/webpages54/ap/presup.html

Presuppositionalism is from Van Til.

It seems to me that Calvinism is based on logic and deduction, rather than sound exegesis and inductive study (we should pull the meaning out of the text to formulate a belief, rather than read a preconceived theology back into the text).

I do not know much about Van Til, but I wonder if there are some applications and limitations to his view. It may be helpful for some apologetics, but not for every doctrinal dispute.
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by godrulz

Hilston:

I do not believe in the classic Augustinian doctrine of 'original sin' nor the Federal Headship of Adam theory. Do I understand from a line in your last post that you also do not believe in this?
You and I seem to agree on this point, godrulz. My view is that "original sin" should really be called, "original guilt," which is horribly anti-biblical.

Originally posted by godrulz

Sin is a wrong moral choice, not a substance passed on from Adam. The soul that sins is the one that will die (Ezekiel).
Exactly. However, I maintain that the fallen nature, figuratively referred to as "the flesh", is passed on, but not as a traducian or physical transference. Man's propensity toward selfishness and sin is now in our very nature as the result of Adam's fall.

Originally posted by godrulz

Would you agree that we are sinners because we sin (volitional), and not that we sin because we are born sinners (genetic)?
I believe we are conceived with the sin nature, though I wouldn't claim it is genetic. It is spiritual. The human spirit was designed to commune with and worship God. Since Adam, all humans are born with a dead spirit (not "lifeless", but disconnected from Life) and is thus sinfully focused solely upon the self from the point of conception.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
I guess 'original sin' is one extreme and my rejection of this is another extreme. You seem to have a moderate position that retains some language of sin nature. The NIV correctly translates 'sinful nature' ( a preconceived theology) as 'flesh' (which I believe is a metaphor for living for Self and the physical over and above living for God and in the Spirit).

I clarify the issue by saying we inherit physical depravity from the Fall of Adam. This includes death and a propensity from an early age to live to please the flesh vs spirit.

I do not believe moral depravity is inherited. Morality is based on choices, which are not inherited. From a young age, we live for Self rather than God. Our choices form a habit which forms a nature/character which leads to a destiny. So, I would not say we have a 'sinful nature' at conception. Babies are born innocent with a bent to sin, not a causative force back of the will.

"Dead in sin" is also a metaphor, not that our spirits in the image of God are literally dead/annihilated. Death= separation. We should not confuse metaphysics (essence, stuff, substance) with morals (choice).

Total depravity (Calvinism) does not have to mean total inability. Again, I would distinguish physical and moral depravity.
 

STONE

New member
Originally posted by godrulz

I guess 'original sin' is one extreme and my rejection of this is another extreme. You seem to have a moderate position that retains some language of sin nature. The NIV correctly translates 'sinful nature' ( a preconceived theology) as 'flesh' (which I believe is a metaphor for living for Self and the physical over and above living for God and in the Spirit).

I clarify the issue by saying we inherit physical depravity from the Fall of Adam. This includes death and a propensity from an early age to live to please the flesh vs spirit.

I do not believe moral depravity is inherited. Morality is based on choices, which are not inherited. From a young age, we live for Self rather than God. Our choices form a habit which forms a nature/character which leads to a destiny. So, I would not say we have a 'sinful nature' at conception. Babies are born innocent with a bent to sin, not a causative force back of the will.

"Dead in sin" is also a metaphor, not that our spirits in the image of God are literally dead/annihilated. Death= separation. We should not confuse metaphysics (essence, stuff, substance) with morals (choice).

Total depravity (Calvinism) does not have to mean total inability. Again, I would distinguish physical and moral depravity.
Though true to a point, being the natural, there is a supernal aspect which is being overlooked.
 

natewood3

New member
GIT,

I might not respond to every single thing, due to the length of these posts lately...however, there are things I want to point out.

You say:

If the spirit doesn’t convict us of that sin and if the father doesn’t begin to draw us towards him, then yes, no one will come to Christ. I agree.

Then you say:

Once we are convicted of sin and drawn the father, we must still make up our mind that we are going to take the salvation that is being offered. Remember, I hold that one fully understands and sees Christ in all his glory AFTER he repents and believes, not before. The repenting and believing are able to be done with the help of the father and the spirit.

I admit that there is work done by the spirit before we repent. That’s what I’ve been saying all along. However, I don’t think it enables us to do anything we couldn’t have done before in the sense of us having a new capability or something. Rather, it helps us do what we should have done the whole time—repent and believe.

Now, a few points need to be made. First, you say the Spirit "helps" us do what we should have done the whole time, namely, repent and believe, but at the same time you want to say that we were totally able to do this before the Spirit began to convict us. Do you not see the incoherence of that? If you are totally able to do so on your own, then why do we need the Spirit's conviction and the Father's drawing? If we have to have it to be saved, then we obviously are unable to truly be saved unless GOD does something first.

Secondly, you say you believe that we "fully understand and see Christ in all his glory AFTER we repent and believe, not before." I suppose you did not think this statement all the way through before you said it.

Why would anyone "repent and believe" in Someone who they do not see or understand, Someone who does not look gloriously beautiful and all-satisfying? Why would anyone come to Christ if they do not see Him? Why would anyone believe in Christ if they don't see Him as the all-satisfying Treasure they have been searching for? I agree that we do not FULLY understand or see Him, but we do see Him and understand what He done for us BEFORE we are saved, otherwise, we would never have any desire to be saved. God's initial activity of letting us "taste and see that the Lord is good" is what causes our desire for Him and our desire to believe in Him.

can we long for something that we don’t really desire? I think we can in a sense, as a part of our mindset. I think we can tell ourselves that we want something and to go searching for it and to think about it, even though we don’t have the feelings to go with it yet. So in that sense, I think we can long for something even though we may lack the emotions.

First, the word "long" in that text means "desire." You are confusing terms. Second, if we are "desiring" the Word by just trying to make ourselves do it, then it is probably fake. I can "make myself desire" a food that I hate, but that is not real desire and longing. Desire comes from tasting and savoring. The more we taste the Word and savor the Word, the more we will desire it. The point it this: If God does not open our eyes to see His Word as great and marvellous, we won't desire it, yet we are commanded to do it.

Well if that’s the case then I think it makes sense for us to let go and let God. In other words, our part is to recognize what God is going to do and open our hearts for him to do it while God is the one who actually does it.

You do not understand the relationship between God's actions and our actions if you think that is what you should do. That is like saying, "God gives and sustains life, so we should just stop breathing." That is crazy. Just because it is GOD that does the work in us, it does not follow for us to be lazy or to just "let go and let God." That is actually antibiblical.

1Co 15:10 But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God that is with me.

I said:
Is looking to Christ and reliance on Christ of grace? Is it not of grace that we have the desire to look and rely on Christ?

Everything in this world is done by grace!

Hence, you support my argument that we would never see Christ or even have the desire to look and rely on Him without God's grace and God's decisive actions before our dependent actions. Therefore, how are we not totally unable to come to Christ unless God performs an awesome miracle in our hearts first?

Hmm, that’s an interesting way of putting it. What I think I was getting at is that even though we may not feel thankful, we should still give thanks. In other words, our actions should not be dependent on how we feel, but what we know we should do. I’m not sure I agree that God can still command of us what we cannot do. I think that’s unjust.

If I give thanks for the loss of my wife, and I am not really feeling thankful, it is hypocritical GIT!!! True gratitude is there when it is there, and when it isn't, it just isn't there. If you just try to muster up some "gratitude" without truly being thankful and feeling thankful in your heart, it is pseudo-gratitude. It is hypocritical.

For example, if I command my cat to swim the Atlantic Ocean knowing full well that it cannot, am I not being cruel? And would I not be even more cruel if I then punished it for not doing what it couldn’t do? It’s because all men can do what is right and repent that we are held responsible for our sins. If all we could do is sin, our whole nature was inherently evil such that repentance and good work were impossible, then to punish us for not repenting and for simply doing what we can do is simply wrong and cruel, as the example I gave showed.

The problem with your example is that your cat cannot swim across because it is PHYSICALLY unable to do it. We cannot come to Christ because we are MORALLY unable to do so. It is not as if God is not allowing some people to come to Him who would have came had they been given the opportunity. No one seeks God. No one understands spiritual things. No one sees the Cross as beautiful. Why? Because they don't WANT to and they are UNABLE to do so because of their sinfulness, corruption, and rebellion. Do not make it as though it is God's fault that we are sinful. As I have always said, we make choices and we choose sin. It is OUR fault we cannot come to Christ. That does NOT in any way lessen weight of the command, "Repent and believe."

I said: The heart is just as sinful as the mind…that was the point.

Agree, which is why God gives us a new one…..

Now, in relation to what I have said above: How would a person with a deceitful and wicked heart ever turn to Christ? If we can turn to him with a sinful heart, why do we need a new heart?

I said: Is the Gospel not the “wisdom of God�???

You said:

1Co 2:14 The natural person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned.

You say this verse only refers to God's wisdom. I said the Gospel is the wisdom of God. You said it is not.

1Co 1:22 For Jews demand signs and Greeks seek wisdom,
1Co 1:23 but we preach Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles,
1Co 1:24 but to those who are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

That whole context of 1 Cor. 1 and 2 is speaking of the Gospel of Christ, and how it is considered the wisdom of God and is foolishness to the world.


I agree with most of this. the only thing I disagree with is that we always repent when the father draws us and the spirit convicts us. I think that one can reject that if they so choose.

If one does not repent, it is because he/she hasn't seen Christ as the all-satisfying Treasure that he/she has always been searching for, because when he/she does, they sell all they have to get it.

Why would anyone interpret a book to lead them to contradictory ideas about reality? In case you forgot, the writers of the bible also lived in reality! You cannot deny free will as it takes it to deny it which is contradictory. That said, any doctrine which leads us to say that we have no free will MUST be discarded and any texts indicating such things must be interpreted in this light. Do you honestly interpret scripture with no regards to reality?

God is a logical being. He’s not going to contradict himself. He can also not create a contradiction like a square circle. Thus, any logical contradiction cannot exist and since free will and exhaustive foreknowledge are contradictory concepts together, I discard EFK for I cannot discard free will.

I DO NOT DENY FREE WILL! I DO NOT DENY FREE WILL! One more time? I DO NOT DENY FREE WILL! What I deny is a will that is contrary to "reality." Libertarian free will is not biblical. It is a presupposition and a philosophical assumption. There is no way on earth I would have ever come to that idea of free will by reading the Bible. I had never even heard of such a thing until I started reading about the OV.

BTW, EFK and free will do not contradict each other in the Calvinist view, only in the OV.

I said: I am not talking about the sins themselves. There could be no wrath concerning these sins for Christ to bear since the sins were not yet committed. Jesus could not have took upon Himself the death I deserve because I was not yet existent and did not deserve such a death yet. There was not price for Christ to pay concerning me, for I did not exist.

You said:

Well then how did Christ die for you? Unless you are now agreeing with me?

You keep stressing that Christ didn't literally bore our sins, but that He bore the wrath of our sins. What you do not seem to understand is this: How can Christ bear the "wrath" for sins that were not yet know? God just gave Christ some general wrath for some general sin for some general people? Paul said that Christ gave Himself for "me." Christ cannot bear Paul's wrath unless God already knew all the sins Paul would ever commit, and therefore be able to remove all the wrath standing between Paul and God.

Try reading 1 John 2:2 or Hebrews 2:9.

I love how you ignored the text.

Joh 17:2 since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him.

Christ died to give life to ALL THOSE GIVEN to Him by the Father?

Who are "all those given to Him by the Father"?

Yes, a person can predestine a group before they exist. Why is that so hard to understand? I think its because of how you understand “predestine� and the things it entails which I don’t hold to. The reason God only predestines that group is BECAUSE of love. The group is open to everyone. Admission is free! Faith in Christ is the key and is available to all. To force what is done to those who freely choose Christ also on to those who rejected Christ would not be right, for there would be no reason to choose Christ.

You imply we "become predstined," which seems, at least to me, totally contradictory. How can we become something that took place before we ever existed?

Who said anything about forcing?

I asked: Can you show me a couple text where it speaks of God working with us to bring about good or nothing God does contradicts our free will or a couple texts that define our will?

You said:

Well, Romans 8:28 comes to mind, as well as Philippians 2:13. are you looking for things like that? The reason I don’t think God ever takes away our free will is because if he ever did, it was never free to begin with. Free means just that, free. If it can be taken away at any time then it wasn’t free, it just had some freedom and I don’t hold that our will just has some freedom, I hold that it is free, truly free.

Neither one of these texts state God works "with" us:

Rom 8:28 And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose.

Phi 2:13 for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.

God does not work around your free will; He works in it to do HIS will and HIS good pleasure. Big difference than Him working "with" us.

God will never take away our free will. God does work in this world as well, doing things like say thunderstorms, or anything else he likes. If God doesn’t want me to get to my class tomorrow then he can cause me to stay asleep through my alarm in the morning or he can cause my alarm to not go off at all. Things like this, that’s what I was talking about earlier.

How would you be "free" to go to class if God "causes you to stay asleep"?

I said:

Well, lets take the command to do “that which is pleasing in His sight.� Are ALL people not under obligation to do that?

If so, then all must have the ability to do it, according to your logic. However, you said earlier that unbelievers

“are not capable of living a Godly life for Christ and loving as he loved.�

So can they all do that which is pleasing in His sight or can they not? If they cannot, then God can still command all to do something that they are totally unable to do in and of themselves. Besides, you have admitted that we are unable to repent unless God works in us first…Thus, you are being inconsistent in saying the above, namely, “if it's given to everyone then we all have the ability.�


You asked where this was found:

Col 1:10 so as to walk in a manner worthy of the Lord, fully pleasing to him, bearing fruit in every good work and increasing in the knowledge of God.

Eph 5:10 and try to discern what is pleasing to the Lord.

Heb 13:16 Do not neglect to do good and to share what you have, for such sacrifices are pleasing to God.

Heb 13:20 Now may the God of peace who brought again from the dead our Lord Jesus, the great shepherd of the sheep, by the blood of the eternal covenant,
Heb 13:21 equip you with everything good that you may do his will, working in us that which is pleasing in his sight, through Jesus Christ, to whom be glory forever and ever. Amen.

If we produce that which is pleasing in His sight on our own, you know who will get glory and praise? US!!! However, if it is God who gives and produces that which is pleasing in His sight IN us and through us, then GOD gets the glory. The Giver gets the glory.

Can? Definitely. Will he? No because that would mean he’d have to take away my free will and he will not do that.

Pro 16:9 The heart of man plans his way, but the LORD establishes his steps.

How does this go along with what you said above?

So how much of the process was ordained by God and from how long ago was it ordained? Lets’ just keep this to the cross for now.

2Ti 1:9 who saved us and called us to a holy calling, not because of our works but because of his own purpose and grace, which he gave us in Christ Jesus before time began,

"Before time" began seems like a LONG "time" ago. Maybe, from all eternity (as other translators translate it)? How much did it involve? Well, look at the hundreds of prophecies and it seems as though all the details were included.

Question: How can God ordain that He would save us through the cross before time began, being He didn't even know Adam and Eve had sinned or would sin, and therefore, we did not need a Savior yet? Why would God ordain the cross before time began if He didn't know the cross would even be needed?

Can he? Yep, but he won’t.

You say God CAN stop you from thinking an evil thought, but what you seem to ignore is the fact that God must KNOW that you are going to think that evil thought if He has the ability to stop the thought. Whether or not God WILL is irrelevant in this issue. You say God CAN stop a person from thinking an evil thought. God must KNOW the evil thought will take place beforehand in order to be able to stop the evil thought.

Well, he did all those for the cross through various means. I’m not sure what kind of an answer you are looking for here. All I know is that he can do things like that without violating our free will.

In other words, you punted on Prov. 16:9...

The hardening was a judgment. God is allowed to judge those in this lifetime as well as the next who refuse him. However, a hardening does not mean one has lost free will. It only means that one’s heart is now less inclined to do the will of God than it was before. As I stated in the other post, the heart does not necessitate the course of action the individual will take.

So Pharaoh COULD HAVE repented and changed everything?


How’d I do?

Well, you punted on the verse we were discussing. So, you either don't understand quite what you believe or I am right. God can work in us and through our desires to produce whatever He wants to produce, without violating our choice and freedom. Hence, it is both God (which is decisive) and man (which is dependent), which equals compatiblism.
 

Clete

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godrulz and/or Jim,

I agree with you both on this issue of original sin, to a point. That is to say, I do not believe that anyone goes to Hell because of Adam's sin but because of their own sin. However, I believe that this is so only because of what was done at the cross. Without the cross we would all be without hope and we would be without hope because we are all fallen 'in Adam'. (I Cor. 15:21-22)

Could I get either one of you or both to explain your understanding of the following two passages?

  • I Corinthians 15:21 For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive.
  • Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned-- 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the offense. For if by the one man's offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man's offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)
    18 Therefore, as through one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life. 19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous.
    20 Moreover the law entered that the offense might abound. But where sin abounded, grace abounded much more, 21 so that as sin reigned in death, even so grace might reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

I look forward to your response.

Resting in Him,
Clete

P.S. Jim,

I'm sorry that I was unable to respond to you over the weekend. I should be able to type up a full response to your post later this afternoon or this evening.

God bless!
 
Last edited:

Hilston

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I've answered this before in greater detail, so I'll just hit on the main idea here.

Both 1Corinthians and Romans were written to members of the Body of Christ, i.e. those who were individually chosen/elected from before the foundation of the world (The elect of the Body were chosen logically prior to the elect of Israel and the nations, who were chosen from the foundation of the world.). That is to say, in the logical order of God's decrees, God made decisions about the Body of Christ before He made decisions about creation, the Fall, sinful man, and the redemption of the elect. So Paul is answering the question: "Since the members of the Body of Christ were chosen before the existence of sin, how is it that members of the Body are found to be sinners?"

So when Paul uses the word "all" in these contexts, he is referring to "all in the Body of Christ," not "all without exception in the world/history."

Otherwise, if you place a high value on the atonement/work of Christ, you're left with universalism. The only way out of universalism is to devalue Christ's sacrifice and to relegate its efficacy to the "real saviors," namely, those who save themselves by being smart enough to cash in the Heaven Rebate Coupon.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Hilston

I've answered this before in greater detail, so I'll just hit on the main idea here.

Both 1Corinthians and Romans were written to members of the Body of Christ, i.e. those who were individually chosen/elected from before the foundation of the world (The elect of the Body were chosen logically prior to the elect of Israel and the nations, who were chosen from the foundation of the world.). That is to say, in the logical order of God's decrees, God made decisions about the Body of Christ before He made decisions about creation, the Fall, sinful man, and the redemption of the elect. So Paul is answering the question: "Since the members of the Body of Christ were chosen before the existence of sin, how is it that members of the Body are found to be sinners?"

So when Paul uses the word "all" in these contexts, he is referring to "all in the Body of Christ," not "all without exception in the world/history."

Otherwise, if you place a high value on the atonement/work of Christ, you're left with universalism. The only way out of universalism is to devalue Christ's sacrifice and to relegate its efficacy to the "real saviors," namely, those who save themselves by being smart enough to cash in the Heaven Rebate Coupon.

I honestly cannot fathom how you cannot consider yourself a Calvinist. Calvin himself couldn't have said this any better.

Be that as it may, isn't this a backward way of interpreting Scripture? You openly admit that your assumption that "all" means "all in the Body of Christ" is because of your theology concerning the atonement. It seems to me that our theology should be influenced by the text not the text by our theology.
Is there a grammatical or contextual reason within the text itself that would suggest such an understanding of the word "all"?
The books of Romans and I Corinthians are both part of the Bible obviously, but they are also their own books and what they say must be interpretable within their own context. In other words each book of the Bible must logically stand on its own. Is there anything in I Corinthians or Romans that would suggest such an interpretation or the word "all"? If not, then your position is disproved on the basis of unsound exegesis.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Clete

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Jim,

I'm going to let the double standard stuff drop. Suffice it to say that I understand your point and as for me, I will endeavor to avoid any such double standard in the future and I am also endeavoring to keep my emotions more in check than they have been in recent weeks.

Originally posted by Hilston
You just don't get it. To say God is encouraged is also an anthropopathic description. The figure is not based on the difference between grief and encouragement but rather between human feelings and Divine feelings. You should already know this, Clete. How long have you been debating this? That's what I find so annoying. After all this time (20+ years as a Calvinist?) just don't know what you're talking about, but you go on and on as if you do.
You are the one who doesn't understand the argument Jim, or at least it seems so.
If you want to call all this stuff anthropomorphisms, great! Call the whole Bible an anthropomorphism if you like, but in so doing you must be prepared to explain what it means. That's all I'm saying.
If Gen. 6:6 is 100% figure of speech then what does the figure mean? All figures of speech, including anthropopathisms convey information of some kind or else they are meaningless, right? So what information is this particular figure of speech conveying to us?
The only answers I have been given are always one of three things; either its just plain silence in which case they don’t know what it means, or the figure is conveying information that is the direct opposite of what the whole context would seems to indicate, or the figure means what the verse actually says, in which case its not a figure of speech in the first place.
The point is that figures of speech are basically multi-word words only with figures the words themselves do not convey the intended meaning it’s exactly the same as having a completely different word in the sentence. And just like regular words, you have to know what a figure means before you can make sense of a text that uses it. All I’m asking you to do is define the terms used in this particular text or admit that you cannot. If it doesn’t mean the opposite, that’s great! What does it mean then?

Lots of people say this, Clete. Why haven't you learned this stuff on your own? Why do you have to be shamed into this? How long have you been debating so-called Calvinists and you still don't know this stuff?
I have been shamed into nothing; I have never had any other attitude. If you have something to teach me, I really wish you would just get on with it and do it. I am not willfully ignorant, if you can show me how I am wrong then I will changed my position. I've done more than once before and I'm sure I'll do it more than once more. Now do you have some reading material for me or not?

Presuppositionalism is the biblical form of debate.
Would you mind explaining and establishing this statement?

I rarely venture outside of it. Whenever I do wander, I always get popped, so I try to avoid that. Since it's one of my favorite subjects, it's highly unlikely that you didn't get a response from me. It's probably more like you didn't understand the response, which is more than likely because it isn't an easy concept to grasp right off the bat. That's not due to any failure or deficit of scriptural apologetics, but rather to the pervasive and ubiquitous use of unbiblical apologetics in Christendom.
I agree that this is a possibility, however, I would say that it is not the responsibility of the "student" to find a way to understand the "teacher" but it is the teacher's responsibility to convey that which is being taught in such a way as his student with understand the material. If you are talking above my head, that's not my fault, but yours.

So then it's NOT an overstatement to say that God wants to save more than He can?
God is not impotent as you phrasing suggests! He can do anything that He wants, including limiting those whom He saves to those who respond to Him in faith. And if He does so, you can rest assured that it is the wisest and most effective course of action possible.

Hilston wrote: Once again, you've missed the point. The Open Theist God has a problem. God wants to save more than He can, because of His stipulated standards. The determinist view has no such problem.
It is not a problem Jim. That's the way God wants it, and so that's the way it is. He wants to have a people who genuinely love Him and so He cannot force the situation. Not because of any deficit in God ability but because of the definition of the word "love".

God would be justified in sending every last person to Hell if He wished.
You wouldn't have a problem with that? Justified means "right." Are you saying that God would be right for sending every last person to Hell for no other reason than it was according to what "He wished"?
I didn't say that but it is what you say, isn't it? At least it's what you say about all those who do go to Hell. They go because God wished to send them there, period.
What I said is that God would be justified in sending us all to Hell if that is what He decided to do. We all, actually do deserve Hell, Jim; all of us including "the elect". It would not be unjust for Him to send us there because of what we have done.

Not according to scripture. It's all or nothing with God. There are no acceptable losses. He will save every single one He loves, without exception.

Mt. 18:11 For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost. 12 How think ye? if a man have an hundred sheep, and one of them be gone astray, doth he not leave the ninety and nine, and goeth into the mountains, and seeketh that which is gone astray? 13 And if so be that he find it, verily I say unto you, he rejoiceth more of that sheep, than of the ninety and nine which went not astray. 14 Even so it is not the will of your Father which is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.
Notice that verse 13 is an "if, then" statement. "If" he finds the lost sheep, then he rejoices.
Also the verse simply communicates God desire; it is not making an absolute statement here accept to say that God does not want to see any of Israel lost. In other passage it speaks of God wanting good grapes and getting wild ones. It is clear that God does not always get what He wants when it comes to people responding to Him in faith. This is the risk one takes when asking someone to love you, sometimes, perhaps more often than not, people reject you. When one does respond though, it makes all the rejection worth it and then some.

Open Theists like to talk about some innate sense of justice. Doesn't that innate thing tell you there's something wrong when God's highest creation, by the vast majority, prefers Satan to God? Doesn't your innate sense of score-keeping tell you that God is a Big Loser if His own special pinnacle creation, by the vast majority, doesn't want anything to do with Him?
On the contrary, with the possibility of love comes the possibility of hate. With a great potential for good comes an equally great potential for evil. The great evil of the human race speaks only to the tragedy of the loss of its awesome potential. Most of which, I believe, has been recovered by the redeeming work of the cross. The simply fact is, that you have no idea what God has in store for those of us who love Him and how that might compare with all the misery and evil that has been visited upon creation up to this point in history. The Bible itself says this explicitly...
  • Rom 8:18 For I reckon that the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us.

That's what I'm talking about. My God is joyful. There is joy in heaven. My God is not subject to mood swings, or an emotional victim of the actions of others. He is in control of His own state of mind, not psychologically tossed to and fro by actions of finite men. There is no sorrow in the Third Heaven. No grief.
So you are saying then that God was not grieved at His heart, right? That Gen. 6:6 says something that is just simply not true at all! It's obviously just a figure of speech, an anthropopathism!
Well if that's the case then why isn't saying that he is joyful a figure of speech as well? Why isn't saying that He is in control of His own state of mind a figure of speech that doesn't mean what it says?
You are simply wrong Jim. The Bible says that He will dry every tear when we get to heaven. That means that there will be some shed. It's sort of difficult to dry non existent tears. And the Bible speaks over and over and over again about God being not only joyful, glad, and happy but also angry and jealous, vengeful, grieved, frustrated, etc.
You can call all of that figures of speech if you like, but I would wager that you are unable to present any contextual or grammatical reason for doing so. The only reason possible is to prop up one's theology. It is theology influencing the interpretation of the text instead of the text influencing the theology. No one, including you, has ever given me any reason to think otherwise.

What you call a "needless tragedy" is God's doing, according to your view, Clete.
No sir! It is according to yours! It is your theology that teaches that those who go to Hell go there because God intended from the beginning that they should, not mine. The Open View teaches that Hell has an all volunteer army. If you go there it’s because you decided to go.

He could stop it all today and prevent scores and scores of people from plunging into hell, but He doesn't? Why?
Because the alternative is better! If He stopped people from going to one he'd have to stop people from going to the other as well. As I've said, the good far out weighs the bad, despite the raw numbers.

Hilston wrote: Statistically, He is losing big-time (hence the term, Big Loser), and any economist, statistician or gambler would suggest He cut His losses and end it all right now. The "God Who Risks" is betting against the house, and He loses big every single day.
Two poker players sit across the table from each other. One has 10 chips the other has 10,000. Who has more money? You can't tell can you?

You've begged the question again, Clete. You're assuming you have perfect understanding of the passage. You've committed a logical fallacy.
So says you. Unsupported statements like this will be ignored from now on.

Hilston wrote: I already knew that is what you think. It's Open View arrogance. I've seen it before. Open Theists just can't fathom the possibility that their view could be wrong, so they blithely dismiss it. If you really thought it was possible to be wrong, you'd stop at nothing to find out, much like I've stopped at nothing to investigate Open Theism. But you don't really care, do you?
On the contrary. Open Theism does the best job of putting forth a theological system that meets up with the Biblical evidence with the least amount of rendering whole passages meaningless and without pulling out the antinomy card on difficult issues. I have read several books on Open Theism, most of which I do not completely agree with and am reading one right now that is a debate between two established theologians, one of which is a Calvinist, and the other an Open Theist. I am just as critical about the Open Theist's arguments as I am the Calvinist's which is why I usually find something that I disagree with. The fact still remains, despite my disagreement on some points, that Open Theism, in general is the system that best fits with the Biblical data that I have yet seen.

That's the difference between you and me. I don't wait around for someone to show me. I'll even put up with deliberate obfuscation and evasion to try to get answers to my questions. As to your question, I've led many horses to water, Clete. So your question is misdirected.
There is no difference except that when I tell someone they are wrong I am fully prepared to explain to them why even if I've done so for many people before. You should know this better than just about anyone here. Repeating myself annoys the fire out of me, but I just seem to keep right on circling the same old barn over and over again, hoping that the hundredth time I've rephrased my point will be the time that whoever I'm speaking to will finally get it.

You've missed the point entirely. The point is that you give every indication that you don't really care. If swordsman gave similar indications, sure, say whatever you want to him and refuse to answer his disingenuous questions (were that the case).
You are a very poor mind reader, Jim. I recommend backing up and resetting. I care very, very much. My relationship with God (and all that implies) is very simply the only thing that matters to me and therefore the correctness of my theology is absolutely vital. I'll say it again, if you have something to teach me, do it; I'm listening.

I haven't complained about the use of TULIP, so I'm not sure why you're making this argument. My complaint is that you guys don't understand what you're critiquing and you just don't seem to care.
What is Calvinism if not the TULIP? What is Calvinism if not its core teachings? What is it that you think I am misrepresenting if it is not the core beliefs of Calvinism? Haven't you complained that I and the other OVers on this site argue against theological points that Calvin did not teach? If Calvin didn't teach what we know today as the TULIP then he didn't teach anything. Maybe it was another one of those mysterious figures of speech!

Then you should be pretty skilled at refuting them by now. What is baffling to me is that you spent 20+ years as a Calvinist and you still don't know this stuff. You must've gone to the same church as Poly.
Yeah, whatever Jim. You don't get to define what Calvinism is. Every Calvinist on the planet that I've ever heard of believes that God is immutable, impassible, and that He predestined every minute detail of every event that ever occurred or ever will occur as well as everything those beliefs logically imply, including the idea that Gen 6:6 doesn't mean what it says.

Then this is even worse. You can give the definition off the top of your head, but when it comes to actually applying it to the text, your brain shuts off. Why do you go around accusing Calvinists of saying God felt the opposite emotion conveyed in the scriptures in question?
I do not make such an accusation out of thin air. I'm telling you, when asked what these figures mean, I get mostly silence and when I get a response it is almost always basically that they mean the opposite of what the text says. This is actually the minority response though; total silence is usually what you get. They simply do not know what it means. All they do know is that it can't mean what it says because if it did then a whole lot of other things that they believe would fly right out the window.

If you want to use Sproul, that's fine. I don't presume to define Calvinism; I let history do that. My point is you don't care. That's my complaint.

Did you understand what he taught on the subject? To test your understanding, ask yourself this: Do you find it surprising that Sproul teaches that that immutability refers to God's character and being, not his actions [Character of God, R.C. Sproul]? If it does surprise you, then you did not understand Sproul's teaching.
He only spent a half hour (and more on subsequent shows) establishing that God does not change at all, period. He even used the logic that Plato used about something that is perfect, if it changes must change for the worse and since God would not be willing to make such a change He must be utterly immutable. There can be no doubt about it. Plato taught absolute immutability; Augustine believed it and interpreted the Bible around that belief. Luther (an Augustinian monk) learned it from Augustine’s teachings and dutifully passed in on to his students and Calvin finally formalized the belief into the theological system which has come to be known as Calvinism. There is a direct historical line which can be drawn from person to person to person all the way from Augustine's bishop who practically worshiped Plato to modern day Calvinism, it is fundamentally and irrefutably founded upon the notion that God is absolutely immutable. Remove that cornerstone and the entire construct comes crashing down around it.

Nope. I'm suggesting that your Open Theism lenses and blinders prevent you from understanding anything more than you've already decided in advance.
Hey pot! Which shade of black did you say that kettle was again?

Hilston wrote: While appreciate your kind remarks, and I sincerely desire to have a cordial and respectful discussion with you, your exit interview with Zman made me re-think even wanting to talk to you on the phone. Something told me that I was seeing my future.

He stated his beliefs, Clete, and you went ballistic. This isn't a church, Clete, where you have to take responsibility for what others teach. This is a public forum where debate is encouraged. Your public trashing of Zman served only to discourage debate.
And hopefully to discourage mindless spewing of blasphemies.
I am responsible for that which I can influence nothing more, nothing less. The venue of that influence is irrelevant. You are free to disagree, if you like.

Good grief, Clete. No wonder you're so uptight. If I made it my mission to protect the TOL skeptics from false teaching, I wouldn't have time to breathe.
His comments were direct to me, Jim. It's not like I comb through the archives looking for opportunities to jump on people for saying something stupid in front of skeptics.

You know what, Clete, those words sicken me. If I didn't know you at all and didn't care about you, I wouldn't give a fig. But when I see the ugly side of people I like, it sickens me.
Nobody's perfect. I admit that my reaction got overly personal and have said as much but it genuinely makes me viscerally agree when people say things that make God out to be Hitleresque or the like and I have no problem letting people know it regardless of who it is or where they are. If you think that's ugly, well I suppose I can't help that.

I would, despite the warnings going off in my head.
Excellent! I look forward to it!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
I Cor. 15 and Rom. 5 would lead to universalism if the parallel is pressed too far (Adam/Christ).

Adam was the OCCASION/opportunity for sin entering the world. He was not the cause of all subsequent men sinning. Adam introduced the penalty of death for sin into the human race. The soul that sins is the one that will die (Ezek.). Every person after Adam freely choses to sin, and will experience the same penalty of death as Adam. Death came to all men, because all men sinned.


Likewise, Christ is the occasion vs cause for all men to be saved. There is a conditional aspect or Rom. 5:18 would teach universalism with everyone saved because Christ died for all men. Not everyone is saved, because not everyone trusts God's provision (Jn. 3). The resurrection of the dead becomes possible through Christ. All those who are in Christ through repentant faith will be saved and raised. It does not mean that all evil men will be raised in Christ just because the resurrection comes through Him or that all will be made alive. This refers to believers, but has nothing to do with a series of decrees.
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by godrulz

I Cor. 15 and Rom. 5 would lead to universalism if the parallel is pressed too far (Adam/Christ).

Adam was the OCCASION/opportunity for sin entering the world. He was not the cause of all subsequent men sinning.
That's neither my claim, nor a requirement of my view.

Originally posted by godrulz
Adam introduced the penalty of death for sin into the human race. The soul that sins is the one that will die (Ezek.).
Romans 5 is not about condemnation, despite the KJV mistranslation. It is about the effect of Adam's transgression upon the Body of Christ, namely the death nature and the subsequent punishments and trials of this life that inevitably result.

Originally posted by godrulz
Every person after Adam freely choses to sin, and will experience the same penalty of death as Adam. Death came to all men, because all men sinned.
It is a contextual mistake to assume that death here refers to physical dying or eternal death. It does not. It refers to the nature of death that is passed on to all the elect, and in context Paul is explaining how a pre-chosen people, chosen before sin was even decreed, came to be subject to the death nature.

Originally posted by godrulz
Likewise, Christ is the occasion vs cause for all men to be saved. There is a conditional aspect or Rom. 5:18 would teach universalism with everyone saved because Christ died for all men.
That is if you have a value-less sacrifice or place a low value on Christ's sacrifice. I do not. Christ's sacrifice accomplishes exactly and precisely that for which is was intended: The salvation of each and every person for whom He died. "All" refers to all members the Body of Christ only.

Originally posted by godrulz
Not everyone is saved, because not everyone trusts God's provision (Jn. 3).
On your view, Christ's is not sufficient to save. It is only a partial provision.

Originally posted by godrulz
The resurrection of the dead becomes possible through Christ.
Biblically, Christ's death is not a matter of possibility, but of certainty, full payment, sufficiency and guarantee.
 

Hilston

Active member
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Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

I honestly cannot fathom how you cannot consider yourself a Calvinist. Calvin himself couldn't have said this any better.
Even a broken clock is right twice a day.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Be that as it may, isn't this a backward way of interpreting Scripture? You openly admit that your assumption that "all" means "all in the Body of Christ" is because of your theology concerning the atonement. It seems to me that our theology should be influenced by the text not the text by our theology.
That's a very naive, or at least over-simplistic, way of stating the hermeneutic enterprise. In a manner of speaking, my theology should have nothing to do with it. It is the theology of the original audience that I'm concerned about. If I determine that the original audience understood "all" very rarely to mean "all without exception," then I am justified in viewing such an idea as the exception and not the rule. When I find pas in a context that supports particularity, specificity, and not universality, then it logical follows that "all without distinction" is to be preferred as how the original audience would have understood the term.

Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer
Is there a grammatical or contextual reason within the text itself that would suggest such an understanding of the word "all"?
Of course there is. First, there is the overarching point of whom Paul is writing to. Second, Paul refers to his audience as being without strength and ungodly. This cannot refer to the elect of Israel (they were not without strength and ungodly, Ro 5:6). Third, if you place a high value on the redemptive work of Christ, which I will not compromise, then the passage can only refer to the elect, otherwise we are logically forced into universalism. If you impose a condition on this passage, as godrulz does, then you're logically forced into a value-less or low-value redemption, which is no redemption at all. There are many more contextual reasons that would take more time and space than is reasonable to develop here. Eventually I hope to have everything from our Romans study posted online. Maybe after I retire.
 
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godrulz

Well-known member
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Well, I have never heard the doctrine of election/Body of Christ being read into Romans 5 before.I would be surprised if the great Calvinist D. Martyn Llyod-Jones reads it this way in his Roman commentaries.

Romans 1-3:30 condemnation

3:21-5:21 justification= (TULIP or election is not explicit here...those who believe are justified).

5:6 Christ died for the ungodly (vs elect only)
5:8 died for sinners (Jn. 3:16= whole world)
5:12 ff. death/condemnation came to all men

6-8 sanctification

9-11 dispensation; election of Israel

12-16 practical exhortations
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by godrulz

Well, I have never heard the doctrine of election/Body of Christ being read into Romans 5 before.
It's not read into Romans 5. It is exegeted out of it.

Originally posted by godrulz

I would be surprised if the great Calvinist D. Martyn Llyod-Jones reads it this way in his Roman commentaries.
Yeah, me too. Why should be concerned about D. M. Lloyd-Jones' view of the passage?
 

godrulz

Well-known member
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Originally posted by Hilston

It's not read into Romans 5. It is exegeted out of it.

Yeah, me too. Why should be concerned about D. M. Lloyd-Jones' view of the passage?

I thought he might represent Calvinism. Romans 5 is not a usual proof text for election/non-election in Calvinistic circles. I do not see it explicitly in the passage. It seems that it is referring to the fact that man is universally guilty and condemned. In light of other passages, those who come in repentant faith will be justified by the person and work of Christ. I do not see limited atonement or unconditional election in this passage.

Christ's provision is fully efficacious. Notice in both of our views not everyone is saved. To say the atonement is limited to the elect is a disingenuous loop hole to try to explain why all are not saved. It is not necessary to say that the provision is insufficient in my view. This is parallel to me saying it is not sufficient in your view, because all are not saved. I do not say this because it does not logically follow either of our arguments. No one disputes that God's provision is perfect (grounds for salvation). The issue is that a response (condition) and appropriation of the perfect provision is necessary. All are not saved because some reject the provision and trust themselves rather than God. To locate the reason why all are not saved in the sovereign, mysterious will of God is more problematic with His revelation and character.
 
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Hilston

Active member
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Originally posted by godrulz

I thought he might represent Calvinism.
I do NOT represent, defend, or espouse Calvinism.

Originally posted by godrulz
Romans 5 is not a usual proof text for election/non-election in Calvinistic circles.
I don't think Calvinists are able to do so, because they tend to be covenantalists, which is an indefensible doctrine in light of Romans 5.

Originally posted by godrulz
I do not see it explicitly in the passage.
It is implicit, but emphatic, given the thrust of the Romans epistle.

Originally posted by godrulz
It seems that it is referring to the fact that man is universally guilty and condemned.
That's because you assume a non-normative interpretation of the word "all."

Originally posted by godrulz
In light of other passages, those who come in repentant faith will be justified by the person and work of Christ. I do not see limited atonement or unconditional election in this passage.
That's because you assume a non-normative interpretation of the word "all."

Originally posted by godrulz
Christ's provision is fully efficacious. Notice in both of our views not everyone is saved.
Yes, but on my view, the unsaved are not regarded as losses and every person for whom Christ died is infallibly saved.

Originally posted by godrulz
To say the atonement is limited to the elect is a disingenuous loop hole to try to explain why all are not saved.
To say a person is justified before God by repentant faith is a disingenuous loophole to try to explain why all are not saved.

Originally posted by godrulz
It is not necessary to say that the provision is insufficient in my view.
Of course not. It's theological suicide.

Originally posted by godrulz
This is parallel to me saying it is not sufficient in your view, because all are not saved.
Wrong. Universal salvation was never the goal or intent of Christ's death. There is no parallel. My view presents a fully successful, zero losses, guaranteed salvation based on the full and sufficient payment in behalf of every elect person. Your view presents a partly successful, riddled with losses, potential salvation based on the partial payment in behalf of all men without exception.

Originally posted by godrulz
I do not say this because it does not logically follow either of our arguments. No one disputes that God's provision is perfect (grounds for salvation).
Actually, your view implies this very thing. It is an imperfect provision because it doesn't accomplish anything. The determining factor is something outside of God's control: Man's decision.

Originally posted by godrulz
The issue is that a response (condition) and appropriation of the perfect provision is necessary.
There you go. Not a perfect provision.

Originally posted by godrulz
All are not saved because some reject the provision and trust themselves rather than God. To locate the reason why all are not saved in the sovereign, mysterious will of God is more problematic with His revelation and character.
That's the logical conundrum forced by your view. I have no such conundrum.
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Jim,

Just to be perfectly clear and to disallow the continued honest use of some of the characterizations of the Open View that you seem to enjoy employing, I would like to say and to make perfectly clear that I believe firmly and absolutely that the price God paid at the cross was of INFINITE value. Allow me to repeat that so I'll know you've gotten it...
THE PRICE GOD PAID AT THE CROSS WAS OF
INFINITE VALUE!

If there were a billion planets with 100 million souls on each planet and all (and I mean every last single one) came to faith in Christ it would not diminish by even the smallest fraction the remaining value of that which was paid at Calvary.
Jesus' death at the cross is what made God's grace available to ALL, that is, anyone who responds to Him in faith. (And again I do mean anyone at all.) We are saved by grace THROUGH FAITH in the shed blood of Jesus Christ. His blood shed for us is the object of our faith and it is our faith which triggers God's grace not the blood itself otherwise you would indeed have universalism. The blood is what made that grace available. If we do not respond to Him in faith then He will not cleanse us of our sins and we will be left to pay the price we owe ourselves, namely death. Which, by the way, is totally His prerogative to decide. It was His sacrifice, His Son, His blood that was shed, He has the absolute right to say to whom that blood will be applied and under what circumstances. If He wants to place a condition of faith within the plan of salvation then that's up to Him, and rightly so.
Now, that's the way God set it up. If you don't like it, I suggest you get over it! You do not get to decide what the plan of salvation is, God does. If you have a problem with it then you have a problem with nothing less than the very gospel itself and thereby the one who authored it. But be that as it may, if I see that you have accused me or any other person who holds to the Open View of believing that Christ's death was of anything but infinite value, know that you will be guilty of intentionally lying and that I intend to call you on it.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Turbo

Caped Crusader
LIFETIME MEMBER
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Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

THE PRICE GOD PAID AT THE CROSS WAS OF
INFINITE VALUE!
Wow! I made the same point to Christine last night on AIM. Then I asked her:

  • Turbopotamus: Was Christ's sacrifice of infinite worth?
    NChristy06: No


:(
 
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