ARGH!!! Open Theism makes me furious!!!

godrulz

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kosmos= 'order of the elect'? Since when? What Calvinistic theological Greek dictionary is that from? This would not fit all the uses of the word in the NT. I doubt that word has any connotation about the elect.

Psalms and Proverbs are not didactic passages. They are wisdom literature. I would not be making a big theological doctrine based on a couplet in Proverbs expressed by a human. Inspiration means accurately recorded what was said. It should not be confused with divine revelation. Regardless, there are alternate literal interpretions that do not contradict the explicit didactic portions.
 

Nathon Detroit

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Re: Re: 10 days later and still hoping for an answer....

Re: Re: 10 days later and still hoping for an answer....

Originally posted by Swordsman
The anthropomorphism is given here to assert that God had an emotion similar to man in that He "wished He had not made man". It does not mean literally that He was sorry that He ever made man.
What is the difference?

You continue...
That would contradict His entire decree of creation.
What in the world is a "decree of creation"???

Where can we read about God's "decree of creation"?

You continue...
I think your assumption is: is that God changed his mind.
It's not an assumption! It's the very meaning of the Hebrew word "Nacham". Nacham means to relent or repent or to feel sorry.

All of these words describe a change in how God viewed creation.

In summary....
God said after creation that creation was "good". Genesis 1:31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good.

But later, man became exceeding wicked and God no longer viewed ALL of creation "good".

Genesis 6:5 Then the LORD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. Genesis 6:6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart.

God changed His mind regarding the "goodness" of creation, your earlier response doesn't seem to disagree.

You continue...
If God is truly omniscient, then He knows the end from the beginning.
God DECLARES the end from the beginning. And nobody can argue against that. God declared when things were to begin and He is certainly going to decide when things will "end".

You continue...
Therefore, if you will, God's mind cannot change; hence "repent" in this passage has to signify a change of conduct.
A change in conduct has the exact same ramifications to your own theology as would a change of mind! Its still a change!

But moreover....
How can God change conduct without a change of mind??? That is utterly illogical.

You continue....
He has seen the end from the beginning. Our finite minds cannot comprehend this.
Prove that statement.

Please demonstrate and back up your baseless assertion.

The bottom line is... you have no reasonable rebuttal to my question(s). You make the claim that "repent" is an anthropomorphism yet you explain the apparent anthropomorphism as if it wasn't an anthropomorphism when you claim God had a "a change of conduct".

If God had a "change of conduct" in Gen 6:6 then you certainly have no basis to argue that "repent" in Gen 6:6 is a anthropomorphism.
 

natewood3

New member
GIT,
Romans 1
18The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness, 19since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. 20For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities--his eternal power and divine nature--have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without excuse.
21For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. 22Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools 23and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles.

all of us know God exists and that we should give him glory. all of us know we need forgiveness for our sins but most of us refuse to aknoweldge God or ask him for forgiveness.

this combined with the drawing of the Father and the conviction of sins from the holy spirit is more than enough to bring a man to repentence.
All of us do know God exists and that we should give Him glory. However, the text you gave shows that ALL people reject God, exchange Him and His glory for other things. The essence of sin is trading and exchanging that which is infinitely valuable (Christ) for the deceitful and fleeting pleasures of this world. I would have to say all of us would continue to refuse God if it was not for the Spirit.

However, what do you mean by “combined�? I would say we would NOT have this sorrow for sin and even acknowledge our sin if it wasn’t for the work of the Spirit. When this is brought to our attention by the Father’s drawing and the Spirit’s conviction, then we become aware of our sinful state, which is why the glory of Christ in the Gospel looks absolutely irresistible: it is that which we have been searching for our entire lives, so why would we ever reject it now that we have found it? That would be foolishness and absurd…

the hostile mind must first be softened before it can repent. that's the whole point of the drawing of the fater and the convicting of the holy spirit! that's their job! to make it easier for us to see that we are guilty and need forgivness. but even after that, the choice to accept the sacrifice of Christ is still their own to make.

godly grief is what one experiences when they see Christ and his sacrifice with joy and beauty. but does it always produce repentence? not necessarily.
So you admit that there must be a gracious work of the Spirit BEFORE we can ever come to repentance…This does NOT just make it easier; it ENABLES us to see our sinfulness and the beauty of Christ. It IS still the sinner’s choice to repent and believe, but as I said above, it would be foolishness and absurd to think that we would reject the gift we have been searching for our whole lives, especially when we see our sinful state and that the Gospel can save us and enable us to know and love Christ, the One for whom we were made.

I agree totally that “godly grief is what one experiences when they see Christ and his sacrifice with joy and beauty,� but I see nowhere in the text that says it does not necessarily lead to repentance. It says that it DOES, not it might not. I think it would be a presupposed inference to draw that from that text.

i see it instead as Paul's reminder to them of what all God has done for them, as a means of encouragement. he was not writing this for doctrines sake, he was writing to benefit them, by means of encouragement i believe. what purpose do you hold that Paul would write those things specifically?
I agree with you; it wasn’t for doctrine’s sake. He is not necessarily giving a treatise on salvation. He does start from eternity past until the present to show them what Christ had done for them. I see no reason to insist that we put in “He did this after we accepted the Gospel� or “This is what happened because they believed� or anything like that because the text doesn’t do that.

if you hang around someone often enough, do something long enough, even if you don't consiously desire it, you will eventually want it and desire it. thus, Peter was writing so that they would be spiritually disciplined and grow to desire it all the more.
That has absolutely nothing to do with this text:

1Pe 2:2 desire the sincere milk of the Word, as newborn babes, so that you may grow by it.

This text COMMANDS us to desire the sincere milk of the Word. As far as I know, I cannot make myself desire ANYTHING. I cannot make my self desire foods I do not like, let alone God and His Word. That alone is a work of God.

metaphor.
That is irrelevant. The point is that WE are commanded to do it, yet we are told in other places that GOD will be the One who circumcises our hearts.

if your thankfulness is dependent on God then yes! you must decide to not rely on the pleasures of the world on which to be thankful, but to look to Christ, the cross and the wonderful grace that was given there and on that to be thankful each and every day, in all things. once we decide to do that, we can make ourselves be thankful in all things towards God. we have to consiously decide to look to Christ for it though, not the world. then we can be thankful in all things.
Is looking to Christ and reliance on Christ of grace? Is it not of grace that we have the desire to look and rely on Christ?

it is more than an emotion i think. i'd say it's an emotion and a mind set. once you recognize the goodness of God and make your gratitude dependent on that, the emotion will naturally follow when you think of God.
Who in their sinfulness, even after salvation, would ever recognize the goodness of God? I forget and ignore the goodness of God in my Christian life a lot. You know why? Because I am sinful and blind and arrogant! If God doesn’t remind me, then I doubt I will see it.

I cannot just be sitting there and be unthankful, and suddenly make myself be thankful if I am really not. If God doesn’t open my eyes and let me see His goodness, and I not see it, and as a result, will not be thankful. Thankfulness and gratitude is an emotion that when you have it, you have it, and when you don’t, you just don’t. Whether or not it is MORE than an emotion, I could probably agree, but the principle exists.

If you were paralyzed from the neck down tomorrow, and could not do anything except sit in a wheel chair, could you MAKE yourself thank God for that?

I said:

God has the right to command of us what we OUGHT to give even if by virtue of our profound rebellion and corruption we cannot give it. The problem is with US, not the command or with God. We should give thanks whether we are able to or not, and we are responsible for doing so. Ingratitude is still sin because the very nature of ingratitude is arrogant and hateful; it matters not whether we can produce it on our own. Either way, we are still responsible.

You said:

i think i agree with this.
You agree that God can command of us what we ought to give even if by virtue of our profound rebellion and corruption we are unable to give it?
here is the NASB version:

5Those who live according to the sinful nature have their minds set on what that nature desires; but those who live in accordance with the Spirit have their minds set on what the Spirit desires. 6The mind of sinful man is death, but the mind controlled by the Spirit is life and peace; 7the sinful mind is hostile to God. It does not submit to God's law, nor can it do so. 8Those controlled by the sinful nature cannot please God.

note how the last part is statd: those "controlled" by it. if someone is controlled by something it means that they are submitting themselves completely to it. they allow it to do as it pleases and they satisfy it. so it makes complete sense that those who are controlled by the sinful nature can't please God.

but it doesn't logically follow that they can't stop gratifying it. they are not helpless slaves here as you might think. it just means that they are constantly giving in to the sinful nature and pleasing it. it's controlling them and they let it do so. they still retain the power to take back control though, with God's help of course.
Your statement that “someone is controlled by something it means that they are submitting themselves completely to it� is totally false. They may submit to it, but it does not follow that this submission is voluntary and willful (Holocaust maybe?). Your entire response in this part above was based on that assumption, which I see totally false and inconsistent with reality.
You seem to ignore that we ARE slaves to sin before we are saved…

which is why we need a new one.
The heart is just as sinful as the mind…that was the point.

the will is not bonded to doing those things. it simply does so because it wills to. but the will is not "set in stone". what it wills is able to change if it desires to, especially if the father begins to draw it and the holy spirit begins to convict it.

i agree that every part of us was tainted by sin at the fall. but that doesn't mean we can't still cry out for a savior once we realize we are sinners and in need of forgiveness! being "dead" is a metaphor for our state of being apart from Christ who is the life. it doesn't mean total inability.
Your idea of the “will� is, at least to me like this: Ihave my soul and heart and mind, then over here, I have a completely different part of me which is not in association with any of the other parts of who I am. The will is not a separate part of a person, acting in complete disassociation with the other parts of who the person is. All parts work together. The will is not a separate entity with a human, working apart from the mind and heart.

you have forgot the soul of the person! the very part of every person that is made in the image of God! a person does think and does feel before acting, but the act of the person is not necessarily related to what they felt or thought! haven't you ever done something spontaneously for no reason without thinking about it or feeling it before hand? i have!
I see the intellect, emotion, and will as part of the soul, not separate from it. The soul was created in the image of God, which is the exact reason why we have intellect, emotions, and will. Once, again, the will does not act apart from these other parts of the soul…

well first off 1 Corinthians 2:14 is invalid because the context is spiritual wisdom, not the gospel.
Is the Gospel not the “wisdom of God�???

but secondly, i read those verses and i think back to Romans 1. the people who reject the cross do so because they love their wickedness and have no remorse in their hearts. they know they need salvation and forgiveness but ignore the great gift of God calling it foolishness. i also think that when they call it foolishness it's because they are not being drawn by the father or convicted by the holy spirit and i agree with you that witout these things we will not seek God.
You make out to sound like there are a bunch of terrible, sinful and corrupt people in the world, and then there are those who are ok people, and they don’t really do much bad, and they are smart enough to choose to NOT sin and choose Christ. THERE ARE NO SUCH PEOPLE! EVERYONE rejects the cross and the Gospel. It is utter foolishness and folly and a stumbling block to them. We are idiots to them! That is not just some people, that is ALL people: moral, immoral or amoral.

Yes, when the Holy Spirit convicts and the Father draws, this all changes. Hence, we see our sinfulness, the beauty and all-sufficiency of Christ, which produces godly sorrow, repentance, and faith.

what else could "NOW that you have come to be known by God" mean? are you suggesting that somehow "now being known by God" means "having always been known by God"?
No. I am simply saying that there are two aspects: a sense in which God has ALWAYS known us (foreknew), and a sense in which God comes to know us (in time and in reality).

but that's not what the verse says. it says now that you have come to be known by God. how can you come to be known if you were known all along?
The verse does equate “coming to know Him� with “being known by God.� Hence, the word “rather.� It further explains what Paul meant. We came to know God, which is to say that in a sense, God came to know us, and came to make us His people.

doesn't follow. it just means that we who weren't previously people of God are now called people of God. God had people all along, but we were not a part of them until now.
We were not a part of the people, but God always had a people and Christ came to die for that SPECIAL people, not a general unknown people.

starwman. letting them be made to God is the same as saying "present your requests before God". it says nothing of whether he knows them before or not. i can make my case known to you in court even though you are aware of it before. it just refers to a formal presenting of your requests before God. it speaks nothing of his knowledge about them. thus your statement is a strawman.
This is not in any way a strawman. Look at the verse:

Phi 4:6 do not be anxious about anything, but in everything by prayer and supplication with thanksgiving let your requests be made known to God.

You say this does not say anything about whether or not God knows them, but I am drawing the same kind of inference you are: Let them “be made known� to God. If we are to make them known to God, then He must not know the present needs of His people. What else could “let them be made known� mean? If we must make them known, they cannot already be known!

perhaps, that's not why i hold to it. i started with my experiences about God, the basics of who he is and what i saw him doing in my life and other peoples lives and found a theology in the bible that matched up. the more i looked at that theology the more i saw it as biblically faithful, consistent internally, and the view that matched up most closely with real life. to me, if you start with scripture and then make reality match up with that, you have it backwards. i look at reality and interpret scripture accordingly which makes sense, unless you hold that the writers of scripture were outside of reality.
I did not say that is why you hold to it. It is one of the supposed benefits, which I do not think it is consistent in doing.

GIT, I thought you were smarter than that?! You judge the Bible by your experiences?! I agree that is what OVers do, but I have never seen them say it! If I start with Scripture, I have it backward??? There is something more authoritative and more sufficient than Scripture??? You seem to be getting out of the realm of orthodoxy and evangelicalism. You have the audacity to judge the Word of God by your puny and limited experience?
The OV does logically have to hold to a low view of Scripture, but it is the logical implication, not what they actually state. At least you are consistent, and at least you admit where your entire problem lies.

he didn't literally bear them, remember? the important thing is the death he paid. we all deserve death as punishment for sin (Romans 3:23) but because Jesus didn't sin at all, the death he paid took on the wrath of God for sin on behalf of us. his death becomes substitutionary for us. he stood where we should have. his death was the price we had earned and because he was without sin, it is able to be applied to us.

there is no need to think that God literally placed "sins" on Christ as if they were things. sins are wrong doings, offenses against God. the punishment is death. Jesus paid the price for that though he was innocent and as such can save us through that.
I am not talking about the sins themselves. There could be no wrath concerning these sins for Christ to bear since the sins were not yet committed. Jesus could not have took upon Himself the death I deserve because I was not yet existent and did not deserve such a death yet. There was not price for Christ to pay concerning me, for I did not exist.

um, comforting has nothing to do with logic. if something is logically incoherent or illogical then it should be discarded immediately because it's untrue. EFK and free will are illogical together. they cannot co-exist. thus, since it's clear we have free will (you have to use it to deny it, illogical), i must discard EFK.

both of those verses there i interpret as general election in regards to the body of Christ. there is no need to assume the interpretation of individual election from eternity past.
1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who are elect exiles of the dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
1Pe 1:2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in the sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and for sprinkling with his blood: May grace and peace be multiplied to you.

These “elect exiles of the dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia� are SPECIFIC people, not just a general group. Peter was writing to specific people, not just whoever happen to read. How can Christ “foreknow,� which seems to have come before predestination in Romans 8, the “body of Christ� which did not even exist?

but that's not the way it works! his death is a general death that is applicable for every human being in all of existence, past, present and future! it's not that you hadn't sinned yet, it's that before you sinned, the way of salvation had already been made. the door through wich all humans can enter salvation by had already been made.
You want to know why Christ died?

Tit 2:14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.

Who is this “us�? Is this just a general people? It is a special people, a peculiar people, a people for His own possession.

Joh 17:2 since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him.

Christ died to give life to ALL THOSE GIVEN to Him by the Father?

General people? I don’t think so.

are you suggesting God can do the illogical, contradictory and absurd?
No, I am suggesting what I said: God is not like you and me. We are like Him.

for everyone! for humanity as a whole! he has become the door through which any sinner can enter into life by! he provided the means by which anyone who sinned could be saved! you keep thinking that Christ had to bear our individual sin in order to atone for it, this is not so! Christ took our death, our wrath on behalf of mankind as a whole. he became the window of salvation because he was sinless, yet he took our punishment for sin.

your view here is a strawman because of a misunderstanding about the cross.
Our sins didn’t have to be bore? Show me where that is not so…
Our death and wrath was a result of our sin! There would be no death and wrath to bear since we did not yet exist to sin. God would not have any wrath toward “us� because “us� did not exist. When Christ died, He would have had to bear on the wrath of those who lived before and those up until the time of His death. We had no “punishment� for Him to take upon Himself.

who said you were predestined to believe? cannot God do general predestination to a group of people before the people exist? of course he can, there is nothing wrong or illogical about that view.
General predestination? A group of “people� before they exist�? To predestine a “group of people� would presuppose you knew there would be a group of people that would exist. It would also presuppose a specific people, for it would have to be a “group� of people out of humanity. Why would God only predestine a “group� of people if He loved everyone?

you can't control free will, by definition. if ones' will is free, then you aren't controlling it. you are giving up control to allow them to do what they decide to do. that's what free means, uncontrolled.

if God were to ever go against our free will, or take it away, then he would not be loving for love always offers a choice. you can't force someone to love you, they must choose to love you. love is always about choice and when you take away someone's ability to make choices you show that you do not love them.

1 John 4:8
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.

God is love as this scripture shows. thus, God has given us choice. he wants a people for himself who truly love him back and freely do so. anything less would not be love. for this to always be true love, God must not take away this free will at any time because he would be taking away their ability to love.

some passages that show free will:

Deuteronomy 30:19
This day I call heaven and earth as witnesses against you that I have set before you life and death, blessings and curses. Now choose life, so that you and your children may live

Joshua 24:15
But if serving the LORD seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your forefathers served beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land you are living. But as for me and my household, we will serve the LORD ."

John 7:17
If anyone chooses to do God's will, he will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.

and there are many other verses on this topic as well. in fact, anywhere you see the word "choose" in a text, this assumes free will for one can only "choose" something when one has free will.
Can you show me a couple text where it speaks of God working with us to bring about good or nothing God does contradicts our free will or a couple texts that define our will?

Those my questions, and you ran with a philosophical assumption of what free will is. I do not deny, nor do any Calvinists, that we make choices and have a will. Those verses show me nothing new. God doesn’t force us to love Him.

If God were to go against our wills, then how do you explain your comments concerning the Proverbs passages that God can work to NOT let us do something He doesn’t want to happen?

the desire and the strength to do them are produced by God.

unbelieves though are still capable of doing good things. they are not capable of living a Godly life for Christ and loving as he loved.
The desire and strength are from God? That is all Calvinists teach when they speak of irresistible grace…

it's important to remember who the command is given to. if it's given to everyone then we all have the ability. if it's just to the body of Christ then i think it's something we can do, but we need God's help to make us do.
Well, lets take the command to do “that which is pleasing in His sight.� Are ALL people not under obligation to do that? If so, then all must have the ability to do it, according to your logic. However, you said earlier that unbelievers

“are not capable of living a Godly life for Christ and loving as he loved.�

So can they all do that which is pleasing in His sight or can they not? If they cannot, then God can still command all to do something that they are totally unable to do in and of themselves. Besides, you have admitted that we are unable to repent unless God works in us first…Thus, you are being inconsistent in saying the above, namely, “if it's given to everyone then we all have the ability.�
 

Hilston

Active member
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Originally posted by godrulz

kosmos= 'order of the elect'? Since when? What Calvinistic theological Greek dictionary is that from?
I don't get my theology from Calvinists or their writings, godrulz, especially since I'm not a Calvinist.

Originally posted by godrulz
This would not fit all the uses of the word in the NT.
kosmos always refers to an order or orderly arrangement in all cases. What is intended by that word changes according to context. Usage and logic indicate that God's intentions to save the kosmos cannot refer to the entirety of humanity, otherwise all without exception would be saved. It can only refer to the elect of the Kingdom of Israel and the Righteous of the nations. It does not even refer directly to the Body of Christ, although a case can be made for an applied principle.

Originally posted by godrulz
I doubt that word has any connotation about the elect.
Of course you do. Your theology requires it.

Originally posted by godrulz Psalms and Proverbs are not didactic passages. They are wisdom literature. I would not be making a big theological doctrine based on a couplet in Proverbs expressed by a human. Inspiration means accurately recorded what was said. It should not be confused with divine revelation. Regardless, there are alternate literal interpretions that do not contradict the explicit didactic portions.
I'm not interested in debating the doctrine of scripture, but can you can tell me what is the relevance of your statements here? How am I making a "big theological doctrine" based on a "couplet in Proverbs expressed by a human"?
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
The Proverbs thought was about someone else's use of an isolated proof text to make a point.

Do a Greek word study on 'cosmos'. I believe you are reading your preconceived theology into the word (assumptions). This is not exegesis nor inductive.

The only reason it would lead to universalism is if you believe in the commericial transaction (literal payment) theory of the atonement. It is not inherent by defining 'world' properly (not elect!).
 
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natewood3

New member
GIT,

Yes, they are getting long. :)

straighforward is best, but sometimes that leaves us with a contradictory theology which will not do. whenever we can, use the straightfoward reading of it. when that leads to problems, find an interpretation that goes along with everything else as best you can. the goal is consistency, truth and biblical faithfulness.
I agree, but OVers seem to use this whenever it fits their theology best, not whenever we can. Who judges when it leads to “problems� or “contradictions�? Obviously, this “straightforward� reading can lead to inconsistencies in other views.

if God doesn't want me to drive to the store then he will not allow my car to start. or he may decide to have a storm come in which prevents me from going to the store. neither of these things affects my free will in any way whatsoever.
If God does not want you to drive to the store necessitates that God knows you are going to drive to the store. What if God does not want you to think an evil thought? Can He stop that as well?

anything God ordains is something he brings to pass himself. the second coming of Christ is ordained by God. my writing this post is just something he has allowed, not ordained. do you have a different understanding of ordained?
I think God can ordained that something be while not directly doing the actions or necessarily causing them to happen. However, I do think God can ordain and cause something to happen through secondary causes and not be responsible for the actions, as if He was the One doing the actions, such as the death of Christ.

God is not ignorant of the present. he sees your thoughts, knows your motives and can see what you are planning to do. if God sees that you are planning to go get drunk and he doesn't want you to, he'll stop you from doing so if he chooses.
I agree God is not ignorant of the present. Once again, can God stop you from thinking an evil thought, if He so chooses?

how do you define establish?
I think Prov. 16:9 defines it as “set up, prepare, or render sure.� So how does God does this and not violate our “free will�?

i believe our heart contains our desires, yes. but remember that he won't do this without good reason. he hardened pharaoh as punishment. he opened lydias heart because she was faithful to him in the old ways. nothing he does will go against free will.
He hardened Pharaoh ultimately to make His power known. How is this consistent with our “free will�? Can God create and give desires to our hearts?

he can do anything that doesn't go against free will or contradict his character.
You didn’t really answer. “Or: God can affect our hearts and desires so that we would NOT choose Him? Or: God can affect our hearts and desires so that we would do that which is pleasing in His sight, which we would NOT have done otherwise?�

i never said God was to blame for sin. i said that sin was done by his power, not by him. we are the ones who use his power for sinful ways. or dou disagree that all things are done by God's power?
I say sin is in a sense done by His power, but not by Him. We are the ones responsible, yes. I agree with you. ALL things are from Him and through Him and to Him, so that He would get the glory forever and ever.

how so?

how am i holding to compatiblism?
Let me see you responses to both of my last posts, and I will see if you stay consistent with what you have been saying throughout these posts…
 

Hilston

Active member
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Originally posted by godrulz
Do a Greek word study on 'cosmos'. I believe you are reading your preconceived theology into the word (assumptions). This is not exegesis nor inductive.
I've inductively exegeted "Kosmos" in the following. Please let me know if I missed any:

Mt 4:8 5:14 13:35,38 16:26 18:7 24:21 25:34 26:13 Mr 8:36 14:9 16:15 Lu 9:25 11:50 12:30 Joh 1:9,10,29 3:16,17,19 4:42 6:14,33,51 7:4 Joh 7:7 8:12,23,26 9:5,39 10:36 11:9,27 12:19,25,31,46,47 13:1 14:17 14:19,22,27,30,31 15:18,19 16:8,11,20,21,28,33 17:5,6,9,11-16 17:18,21,23-25 18:20,36,37 21:25 Ac 17:24 Ro 1:8,20 3:6,19 4:13 5:12,13 11:12,15 1Co 1:20,21,27,28 2:12 3:19,22 4:9,13 5:10 6:2 7:31,33,34 8:4 11:32 14:10 2Co 1:12 5:19 7:10 Ga 4:3 6:14 Eph 1:4 Eph 2:2,12 Php 2:15 Col 1:6 2:8,20 1Ti 1:15 3:16 6:7 Heb 4:3 9:26 10:5 11:7,38 Jas 1:27 2:5 3:6 4:4 1Pe 1:20 3:3 5:9 2Pe 1:4 2:5 2:20 3:6 1Jo 2:2,15-17 3:1,13,17 4:1,3-5 4:9,14,17 5:4,5,19 2Jo 1:7 Re 11:15 13:8 17:8

Perhaps you can give us your correct lexical definition of the word.

Originally posted by godrulz
The only reason it would lead to universalism is if you believe in the commericial transaction (literal payment) theory of the atonement. It is not inherent by defining 'world' properly (not elect!).
Good point. Understanding that Christ's death literally paid for my sins and the sins of every heaven-bound person is essential to a correct understanding of "kosmos." If Christ paid for the sins of anyone in hell, then His sacrifice had no value.

Since Christ's death actually and literally paid for my sins, I have assurance on that basis that I will be saved.

Since you don't believe Christ's death has any actual literal value, your assurance rests on something other than Christ's sacrifice.
 

godrulz

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A literal payment (vs metaphor) logically leads to universalism, unless you construct the limited atonement loop hole.

'kosmos' has several concepts depending on the context. It does not have to mean elect (eisegesis), and certainly not exclusively (most do not list this as a meaning). It can mean simply earth vs heavens, etc. It can contrast Gentiles vs Jews, etc.

A.T. Robertson (foremost Greek scholar...see Greek grammar) (I would not be surprised if he is a Calvinist)

"Word pictures in the NT"

'the world' = "The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race." This universal aspect of God's love appears also in 2 Cor. 5:19; Rom. 5:8.

Have you looked at Kittel's extensive notes (I did not see elect view...if anything, the world does not love Him)?

Vine's? (simpler)

Thayer's?

Arndt and Gingrich (Bauer)?

I skimmed all of these.

B.F. Westcott (translator) Gospel according to John (? Anglican? Calvinist?)

Jn. 3:16 interprets love as universal for all men= world; all are not saved because do not exercise condition of faith.
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by godrulz
A literal payment (vs metaphor) logically leads to universalism, unless you construct the limited atonement loop hole.
You don't seem to understand. If Christ's death is high in value, but not everyone gets saved, then it's scope must be limited. It's not a loophole, but a logical necessity if one believes in an efficacious atonement that actually atones for the lost. For those who believe that Christ's death was not sufficient to save anyone, it doesn't matter what "kosmos" means.

Originally posted by godrulz
'kosmos' has several concepts depending on the context. It does not have to mean elect (eisegesis), and certainly not exclusively (most do not list this as a meaning).
Did you read what I wrote, godrulz? I do not claim "kosmos" should ever be translated "the elect." It always means order or orderly arrangement. But it can refer to the elect. The understanding of the elect is not eisegesis, as you keep harping, no more than the concept of the Trinity is eisegesis. These are logical inferences drawn from the data provided.

Originally posted by godrulz
It can mean simply earth vs heavens, etc. It can contrast Gentiles vs Jews, etc.

A.T. Robertson (foremost Greek scholar...see Greek grammar) (I would not be surprised if he is a Calvinist)

"Word pictures in the NT"

'the world' = "The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race." This universal aspect of God's love appears also in 2 Cor. 5:19; Rom. 5:8.
So is that the definition you're going by? Let's see if it fits:

Mt 13:35 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world [i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race].
Mt 16:26 For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world [i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race], and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?
Joh 12:19 The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world [i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race] is gone after him.
1Co 7:33 But he that is married careth for the things that are of the world [i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race], how he may please his wife.
1Ti 6:7 For we brought nothing into this world [i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race], and it is certain we can carry nothing out.
Jas 3:6 And the tongue is a fire, a world [i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race] of iniquity: so is the tongue among our members, that it defileth the whole body, and setteth on fire the course of nature; and it is set on fire of hell.
1Pe 3:3 Whose adorning [=KOSMOS, i.e. The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race] let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;

Originally posted by godrulz
Kittel's ... Vine's? ... Thayer's? ... Arndt and Gingrich (Bauer)? ... B.F. Westcott
I was asking for your definition.

Originally posted by godrulz
Jn. 3:16 interprets love as universal for all men= world; all are not saved because do not exercise condition of faith.
How do you define "love"?
 

godrulz

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Love is seeking the highest good of another. God's highest good is paramount in the universe since He is the most worthy and valuable being. Love is unselfish. Love has many facets (I Cor. 13). God is love (I Jn. 4:8).


You said world ALWAYS means order or orderly arrangement. This is ONE meaning among many other possible meanings. "Elect" is not implicit in this meaning. I think it was Kittel or one one the other standard works that explicitly stated the NT usage is not usually of this meaning (it traced all the Greek uses of the word through secular and biblical history).

F.F. Bruce (beloved Calvinist and excellent scholar):

"The Gospel of John"

3:16 "...his intention is rather to set forth in terms of UNIVERSAL applicability the lesson that Nicodemus taught.
If there is one sentence more than another which sums up the message of the 4th Gospel, it is this. The LOVE of God is LIMITLESS. It embraces ALL mankind. No sacrifice was too great to bring its unmeasured intensity home to men and women: the best that God had to give, he gave- his only Son, his well-beloved.

NOR was it for one nation or GROUP that he was given: he was given so that ALL, without distinction or exception, who repose their faith on Him might be rescued from destruction and blessed with the life that is life indeed. The Gospel of salvation and life has its source in the love of God (vs sovereignty defined as electing some and non-electing others- GR). The essence of the saving message is made unmistakably plain, in language in which people of ALL races, cultures and times can grasp, and so effectively is it set forth in these words that many more, probably, have found the way of life through them than through any other biblical text...To perish is the alternative to having eternal life."

Bruce goes on to put the onus on believing/unbelief; life/death; etc. on the individual, not the mysterious, hidden 'will' of God (Jn. 3).

The love of God and the Gospel message are universal in scope. Every person who has ever lived who hears the Gospel has the potential to be saved. If they reject the message and persist in sinful rebellion, they will be lost. If they believe in repentant faith, they will have eternal life. Elect vs non-elect are logical concepts to shore up a theological system. They are not inherent to the biblical text (corporate vs individual election as developed in "God's strategy in human history" and many other books). Your view of the 'atonement' is also leading to circular reasoning. Hyper-sovereignty also leads to incomplete conclusions out of balance with the whole counsel of God in all the relevant verses.
 

Clete

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Swordsman,

Whether you agree with it or not, it was a very well written post and an excellent argument. He even used a prominent Calvinist to make his point for him!
How about responding to in some substantive way, or if you cannot, how about agreeing with it? Admitting that you've been wrong your whole life is what Christianity is all about! ;)

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Swordsman

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

Swordsman,

Whether you agree with it or not, it was a very well written post and an excellent argument. He even used a prominent Calvinist to make his point for him!
How about responding to in some substantive way, or if you cannot, how about agreeing with it? Admitting that you've been wrong your whole life is what Christianity is all about! ;)

Resting in Him,
Clete

I could care less if he is Calvinist. He made a point that said the "Gospel of salvation and life has its source in the love of God." One, usually an Arminian, comes to the point then that God loves all so he died for all. It doesn't, however, explain as to how there are those that still perish in the Lake of Fire.

Did Christ die for those whom He knew who go to Hell? Or if you don't believe in the fact that He knew they would go to Hell, then did He die for those who "freely" rejected Him and were condemned to Hell? Either way you have it, you would have to come to the conclusion that His blood was spilled in vain for those who were condemned. (i.e. Judas Iscariot. Did Christ die for his sins too?)
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by godrulz
Love is seeking the highest good of another.
Where did you get that vague definition? Love is "seeking"? What does that mean? At least define a noun in terms consonant with its part of speech.

Originally posted by godrulz
You said world ALWAYS means order or orderly arrangement. This is ONE meaning among many other possible meanings.
Find me a single verse where "kosmos" does not mean order or an orderly arrangement.

Originally posted by godrulz
"Elect" is not implicit in this meaning.
NOBODY SAID IT WAS!!!!! Try to keep up, godrulz. Are you being deliberately dense?

Originally posted by godrulz
I think it was Kittel or one one the other standard works that explicitly stated the NT usage is not usually of this meaning (it traced all the Greek uses of the word through secular and biblical history).
I'm surprised anyone would say this is EVER translated "the elect". No one I've read claims this. I claim it has this referrent, but that's not saying it should translated "the elect".

Originally posted by godrulz
F.F. Bruce (beloved Calvinist and excellent scholar):
Why is this important to you? I'm not a Calvinist, godrulz. I don't appeal to Calvinists to justify or to prove my theology. This is what makes me think you're either not paying attention, being deliberately dense, or you're just slow on the uptake.

Originally posted by godrulz
"The Gospel of John"
3:16 "...his intention is rather to set forth in terms of UNIVERSAL applicability the lesson that Nicodemus taught.
Well, there is nothing universal about what Nicodemus taught. So Bruce is up a tree as well. This is generally (pun intended) the common error of evangellyfishism and anti-determinist ideologies: Presume universal, vague, ambiguous and murky generality in lieu of narrow specificity, accuracy and precise detail.

Originally posted by godrulz
If there is one sentence more than another which sums up the message of the 4th Gospel, it is this. The LOVE of God is LIMITLESS. It embraces ALL mankind.
You still haven't given an adequate definition of love. The usage of agape in the Greek scriptures is unique in all of literature. It is self-sacrificing devotion and it does NOT embrace all of mankind. Jesus loved the church (the elect) and gave Himself (out of self-sacrificial devotion) for them, not for all of mankind.

Originally posted by godrulz
No sacrifice was too great to bring its unmeasured intensity home to men and women: the best that God had to give, he gave- his only Son, his well-beloved.
What is this language? "The best He could give"? Where do you get this stuff? As if God had to look around and wonder, "Hmm, what could I do to really show how much I love all of mankind?" It's silly, godrulz. "No sacrifice was too great"? What exactly does that mean?

Originally posted by godrulz
NOR was it for one nation or GROUP that he was given: he was given so that ALL, without distinction or exception, who repose their faith ...
Then it is not all without exception, is it? You've imposed an exception with your requirement of "who repose their faith."

Originally posted by godrulz
... he was given so that ALL, without distinction or exception, who repose their faith on Him might be rescued from destruction and blessed with the life that is life indeed. The Gospel of salvation and life has its source in the love of God (vs sovereignty defined as electing some and non-electing others- GR).
The gospel of salvation is rooted in love (self-sacrificing devotion) which actually accomplishes its goal. It is love that truly saves, truly pays the price, for real, not just potentially, unlike the diluted and ineffective "love" of Open Theism and Evangelicalism.

Originally posted by godrulz
The essence of the saving message is made unmistakably plain, in language in which people of ALL races, cultures and times can grasp, and so effectively is it set forth in these words that many more, probably, have found the way of life through them than through any other biblical text...To perish is the alternative to having eternal life."
This claim does not justify a false understanding of the text. Jn. 3:16ff is written to the elect, specifically of Israel, which included Nicodemus. It doesn't even apply to the elect of Body of Christ.

Originally posted by godrulz
Bruce goes on to put the onus on believing/unbelief; life/death; etc. on the individual, not the mysterious, hidden 'will' of God (Jn. 3).
Who cares? Bruce might also pick his nose in the dark. When you stand before God, Bruce won't be there to defend your false doctrine.

Originally posted by godrulz
The love of God and the Gospel message are universal in scope.
This is biblically untenable. The irrefragable specificity of God's love is found throughout scripture.

Originally posted by godrulz
Every person who has ever lived who hears the Gospel has the potential to be saved.
This is false. Vessels of wrath fitted for destruction, appointed to disobedience, have no "potential to be saved." For some, it would've been better if they had never been born. There is no "potential" for them whatever.

Originally posted by godrulz
If they reject the message and persist in sinful rebellion, they will be lost. If they believe in repentant faith, they will have eternal life. ...
This is false. The scriptures command belief in Christ, not belief in faith. Where are you getting this stuff?

Originally posted by godrulz
Elect vs non-elect are logical concepts to shore up a theological system.
So are "Trinity" and "omnipotent" and "Open Theism." So are "logical" and "concept" and "theological" and "system." This kind of comment demonstrates nothing more but a lack of cogent argument.

Originally posted by godrulz
They are not inherent to the biblical text (corporate vs individual election as developed in "God's strategy in human history" and many other books).
Sure they are. I don't expect you to see their inherent presence and pertinence, but they're there, glaringly so.

Originally posted by godrulz
Your view of the 'atonement' is also leading to circular reasoning.
Show me.

Originally posted by godrulz
Hyper-sovereignty also leads to incomplete conclusions out of balance with the whole counsel of God in all the relevant verses.
You've got that backward. Hypo-sovereignty leads to completely false conclusions out of balance with the revealed counsel of God in all verses without exception. By the way, the idea that God's whole counsel is revealed in scripture is false.
 
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HopeofGlory

New member
Originally posted by natewood3

Gen 3:9 But the LORD God called to the man and said to him, "Where are you?"

God must also be ignorant of the present. He is asking, "Where are you presently," not "Where will you be in the future?" God must also not be omnipresent, since He obviously does not know where in the Garden they are. So, the God of the OV is not only ignorant of the future, but He is also ignorant of the present and is not omnipresent.

Gen 3:11 He said, "Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten of the tree of which I commanded you not to eat?"

WOW! God is also ignorant of the past, for He obviously would not have asked, "Who told you..." if He knew perfectly the past. His knowledge of the past must also be the same of the past: imperfect and not exhaustive. Once again, "Have you eaten..." God is obviously ignorant of the past, for if He wasn't, then He would have known that they had eaten of the tree. The God of the OV is not only ignorant of the future, but He is also ignorant of the past.

Gen 3:13 Then the LORD God said to the woman, "What is this that you have done?" The woman said, "The serpent deceived me, and I ate."

This definitely shows the ignorance of God. "What in the world have you done Eve?! I never dreamed you would actually do such a thing. I can't believe I actually created you!" God is so ignorant, when Eve sinned, He didn't even know what had happened!

The God of the OV is ignorant of the past, present and future, and He cannot be omnipresent.

OR:

God really knows the past, present, and future, and is omnipresent, and these are rhetorical questions/anthropromorphisms, expressing how God acts in human terms so that we would be able to relate to the infinitely holy and almighty God.

:think: excellent points which I don't believe have been addressed by the ov'ers.

Also the death of an unborn child, exactly how would God determine this child's fate and why? I would like to hear from both sides.

Thank you in advance to all that respond.
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by natewood3:
...the God of the OV is not only ignorant of the future, but He is also ignorant of the present ... [the OV conception of] God is also ignorant of the past, for He obviously would not have asked, "Who told you..." if He knew perfectly the past. His knowledge of the past must also be the same of the past: imperfect and not exhaustive. Once again, "Have you eaten..." God is obviously ignorant of the past, for if He wasn't, then He would have known that they had eaten of the tree. The God of the OV is not only ignorant of the future, but He is also ignorant of the past. ... God is so ignorant, when Eve sinned, He didn't even know what had happened!
Is "omnipresent" also one of the "omnis" that the OVists deny?

The God of Open Theism is not only ignorant of lots of things, but he also has to send investigators to find out what people have been up to (e.g. when the angels went to Sodom and Gomorrah to find out if it was as bad as the reports had indicated).

How does the Open Theist trust this God? And for what? What does He actually do? He says He has done everything He can -- in the past. What is He doing right now? According to OVists here on TOL, God is doing everything He can to save as many people as possible (which means He's doing what, exactly?), yet they pray to God. To do what? More than He is already doing?
:kookoo:
 

Clete

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Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Hilston

Is "omnipresent" also one of the "omnis" that the OVists deny?

The God of Open Theism is not only ignorant of lots of things, but he also has to send investigators to find out what people have been up to (e.g. when the angels went to Sodom and Gomorrah to find out if it was as bad as the reports had indicated).
:think: Funny how that's precisely what the text says....

Gen 18:21 I will go down now, and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which is come unto me; and if not, I will know.

Must be another figure of speech, the meaning of which nobody is able or willing to explain. :rolleyes:

Heaven forbid we actually read the Bible and take it for what it seems to say! That might put our beloved theology at risk! Oh NO! :shocked:

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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