Philetus
New member
:first:...........Well, that would have been cool if he just posted
It might have even been tempted to accept his position that God 'caused' him to post at that moment.
NOT!
:first:...........Well, that would have been cool if he just posted
Sounds a little compatibilistic to me. Then maybe I don't quite understand the concept.
I take it you mean: At least NOT without natural and just and most holy consequence. (I trust I'm reading that correctly.)
Of course there are consequences which brings up the whole issue of contingencies.
Are there consequences/contingencies if we don't sin that are different than if we do sin?
"If you eat you will die" isn't the same as "when you eat, I will kill you". I think that is significant.
To say that God gives genuine freedom that includes the freedom to go against His holy will is not the same as saying that HE APPROVES IT.
GOD neither approves of sin
nor does God cause it!
God allows it.
WE do it knowing its just penalty!
Given your statements (in bold) in the quotes above:
where does sin and lawlessness come from if not from man's exercising his God given freedom?
That's where we seem to always hang up. If it isn't 'freedom' miss used to go against God ... what is SIN?
If there are not real consequence for our choices then are there really any choices for us to make?
IF Adam did what you just said God given freedom didn't allow for, then who could possibly sin?
So what do you do with the statement after the Pharisee's party at Simon's house where Jesus says to the woman who had lived a life of sin ... "Your faith has saved you." NIV
Luke 7:48 Then Jesus said to her, "Your sins are forgiven." 49 The other guests began to say among themselves, "Who is this who even forgives sins?" 50 Jesus said to the woman, "Your faith has saved you; go in peace." NIV
Who sinned? The woman?
Of her own volition?
Or was God the agent of cause by virtue of His 'absolute sovereignty' over her will?
Did her faith have anything to do with her salvation?
In your view; are we talking about first and secondary causes here?
If so isn't it a matter of semantics and if so, which is easer to explain to the lost or the saved for that matter? Is it really a matter of forcing the scripture into an explanation that isn't necessary?
I'm not just trying to be clever or crafty. I'm honestly trying to voice my frustration with Calvinism without all the barbs. (Admittedly, not easy for me.) I'm trying to understand where YOU are coming from and being careful not to lump you into a general group that happens to be in opposition to OV on this thread.
Nang,
The Open View really does lean heavily upon God's qualitative attributes like justice and righteousness, love etc. And so since you reject the Open View, it follows that your definition of justice would have to be significantly different than what most people would intuitively think justice means. Could you explain what you understand justice to be and why? What does it mean to be treated justly?
Resting in Him,
Clete
Nang,
The Open View really does lean heavily upon God's qualitative attributes like justice and righteousness, love etc. And so since you reject the Open View, it follows that your definition of justice would have to be significantly different than what most people would intuitively think justice means. Could you explain what you understand justice to be and why? What does it mean to be treated justly?
Resting in Him,
Clete
It's interesting to me that the Calvinists have been reduced to "Theologians have always believed..." and "Philosophers have said that.." and "The historical church says that..." as though these things are infallible to the Protestant.
Martin Luther disagreed with the theologians of his day. Calvin had disputes with the theologians of his day. Yet, these are held as the ones who "the church has always believed...."
Philosophers never agree with one another. It's how they make their living.
I also find it odd that they've stopped using Scripture to support their cases.
It's almost as though they're saying "This is what we've always believed...." Like their tradition trumps Scripture.. Hmm....
Muz
Biblically speaking righteousness and justice are totally synonymous. In fact, it is basically just two different applications of the same word ((Strong's H6666 - See Genesis 15:6 & 18:19) & (Strong's 1342 - See Matthew 1:19 & 9:13))Actually, 'most people' (Catholic/Protestant) are not OV, so they'd have a similar take on His justice. Justice means doing rightly. In our 'justice' system, it is judging rightly between offenders. God's justice is the standard because whenever there is an offense, it is always man-initiated. Justice and righteousness are most nearly synonymous in discussion, because one proceeds from the other. God is just (judges rightly) because He is always right(eous).
I do not recall you asking the question and this posturing of yours is rude and intellectually dishonest in the first place. If you want to discuss it, answer the question. If you don't then don't. I am no longer interested in playing these sorts of idiotic games with you. I should have known I couldn't get a straight answer anyway. I don't even understand why I try.Clete,
I seem to remember asking the OT'ers what their views of justification were, a few weeks ago, and got no takers or answers, but only insults . . .you being one of the insulters, if I recall.
For you see, I believe one must study Godly justification in order to understand Godly justice to the fullest.
So what's this all about?
I asked first.
Want to start a new thread? I might answer you if you do.
Nang
You are quite the glutton for punishment. One would think that after the beat down you got from Stevenw the last time you raised this question, you would just let it drop. (See here and here.)Nang,
The Open View really does lean heavily upon God's qualitative attributes like justice and righteousness, love etc. And so since you reject the Open View, it follows that your definition of justice would have to be significantly different than what most people would intuitively think justice means. Could you explain what you understand justice to be and why? What does it mean to be treated justly?
Which proves once again that the majority is almost always wrong.Just to let you all know, compatabilism (or some general form of it) is most likely the most widely held view in academic philosophy regarding the "free will" debate.
PS. Not saying that legitimatizes it, but just food for thought.
Oh... the irony!!! :rotfl:You are quite the glutton for punishment.
Biblically speaking righteousness and justice are totally synonymous. In fact, it is basically just two different applications of the same word ((Strong's H6666 - See Genesis 15:6 & 18:19) & (Strong's 1342 - See Matthew 1:19 & 9:13))
In effect then you've not really defined the term 'justice', you've only cited a synonym. Not that doing so wasn't helpful at all, it does move in the right direction but could you be more specific? When you use the word "justice" in the context of rightly holding someone morally responsible for their actions, what are you thinking? Describe for me the concept behind the word.
Resting in Him,
Clete
Why not! Let's begin with the Justice of God for you claim that God would not be just if He only saved one person .... As I stated earlier, the demands of justice require no more than that sin be punished. This can be simply demonstrated through the teaching of Scripture, of the church fathers and of orthodoxy to the present.
In the Divine context, Justice means that God must render to every man according to his works. Since all have sinned (which is a violation of God's Infinitely Holy Nature) justice demands capital punisment (spiritual, physical and eternal death). The work of Jesus on the cross through His vicarious (substitutionary) atonement does not change the meaning of the Justice of God - in this case sin is punished through the crucifixion of Christ on our behalf which quenches the infinite fury of God against sin and satisfies the demands of God's Justice. The demands of justice are therefore satisfied through punishment either of the sinner or through the suffering of the God-man.
How is God unjust if He saves no-one?? He will punish sin, He will render to every man according to his works, what a man sows he will also reap (retributive justice), therefore, how is God unjust if he casts every sinner into hell? Your concept of the Justice of God falls far short of the Scriptural and accepted meaning of the word, remember,
Thanks, 'elect' (can you guess who) needs all the help he can get.Oh... the irony!!!
Best way to determine this usually is to look at the last few posts made by a person. Start here.For the life of me, I cannot see why he (stevew) was banned.
Talk about God being unjust. I seems to me it would be unjust for Him to send anyone to eternal punishment for their sins since His Son paid the price to redeem them. Reaping what you sow--that sounds like disciplinary action for corrective purposes. Eternal torment would be paying for your sins after Jesus Christ already did. Did God accept His sacrifice or not? I believe He did