SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Too many fights and goons like Chris Pronger?
Soccer was meant to play on grass with your feet, not on ice with sticks!
Too many fights and goons like Chris Pronger?
So, there's an endless succession of events that goes on forever in eternity past?
How do you know how long it was?
Yes. If you are trying to trap me, I asked a mathematician about numbers and infinity. Endless succession is not a problem. As well, Zeno's paradox (can an arrow reach a target if there are infinitely smaller intervals before it gets there) has been resolved with math and logic (see Lucas again on instants vs intervals).
There are earthly events. I would expand beyond events and recognize that the triune God had thoughts and feelings that require succession or duration, even apart from acts or 'events'.
Historical narrative/genealogy/speculation. Do you hold to the 'gap theory'? If not, it is reasonable to assume the Fall happened early in man's history, not long periods after (Gen. 1-3).
Yes. If you are trying to trap me, I asked a mathematician about numbers and infinity.
God is authoritative not libertarian. Where did God give permission to do what we wonted in conflict with His divine plan for man? It is because of this libertarian view that man fell in the garden. Deeds are not done with no consequence.Begging the question, circular reasoning, assuming what you are trying to prove. Assuming EDF does not prove it. Predestination or determinism would make EDF possible, but you reject this in favor of free will. Unfortunately, you cannot have your cake (EDF) and eat it too (libertarian free will)....you just don't see it...yet.
So, "time" in eternity past, had no beginning but it had an end when God
created the universe?
God knowing beforehand does eliminate free choice, but let's take what you say and look at it another way that is more favorable to your position. Let's say God takes exhaustive knowledge of the future and gives it to someone else. They can truly say they know the future exhaustively, but they don't cause any of it. That would be true, right?It's illogical to believe that God knowing beforehand what I will freely choose makes the choice no longer free.
So, it's possible that the work of redemption was "known" well before
the fall?
God is authoritative not libertarian. Where did God give permission to do what we wonted in conflict with His divine plan for man? It is because of this libertarian view that man fell in the garden. Deeds are not done with no consequence.
God knowing beforehand does eliminate free choice, but let's take what you say and look at it another way that is more favorable to your position. Let's say God takes exhaustive knowledge of the future and gives it to someone else. They can truly say they know the future exhaustively, but they don't cause any of it. That would be true, right?
Endless time <<<<-------CREATION----------->>>>>>>>>>
Revelation 1:4 and 8; Ps. 90:2
Time or duration did not cease when the material universe began. Did time cease or start just because you are born or die?!
Creation was the beginning of a unique measure of time for us, not the beginning or end of time as a concept itself. God is from everlasting to everlasting. His years are without end or beginning (Ps. 102). We are everlasting with a beginning, but no end. He is without beginning or end (but that does not make Him timeless anymore than us living forever makes us timeless...tensed expressions are used several times in Revelation about heaven/eternity).
Well, yes, I would also wonder what Godrulz means by time as God understands it. Is it subject to Einstein's time dilation? Is there an inertial frame of reference?Sorry, I misworded my question. You had said earlier that "time as we know it" began at the creation of the universe. Speaking specifically of the "time" as God understood it before creation, did it have no beginning but a definite end?
I'm not sure I could do without the first verse of "When the Roll is Called Up Yonder"!I assume you reject the KJV rendering of Rev 10:5-7 KJV?
So you aren't sure? You've been saying all along that God knowing a choice does not remove a person's will. How much more so for a being that wasn't God that merely knew the same choice but had nothing to do with it? Shouldn't it be a whole-hearted "yes!"?As I walk into your trap, I'll say "I guess so..."
Here you say it again with this rhetorical question. So if it isn't God that knows, surely, another being knowing would not eliminate choice? Right?Does God knowing a free choice beforehand eliminate free choice?
That's not true! It proves a lot more than that. It proves that what is foreknown is necessary, not contingent. In other words, it proves that what is foreknown is not carried out freely.All the syllogism proves is that what is foreknown is carried out.
How many of those 40 posts were in response to unbelievers?I researched your last 40 or so posts, 99% were about Open theism and/or Spanking. How many people believed that Christ died for their sins by convincing
them that God doesn't know the future?
Dispensationalism makes no sense outside of the Open View! Romans 9 is where Paul gives his best argument for how God was justified in cutting Israel off. In that chapter he quotes Jeremiah 18. In fact, for all intent and purposes Romans 9 is Jeremiah 18. The point being made in both chapters is effectively identical. The only difference is that Paul in Romans 9 is basically making the point that the cutting off of Israel is the result of Jeremiah 18 being enforced against Israel.How many people understood the difference between Israel and the Church by convincing them that God doesn't know the future?
It would be rate (i.e. speed) that would equal zero, not time. Existence implies duration and so time could not be zero because if you were to say that time=zero you would be saying that duration=0 because information about duration and/or sequence is what the word 'time' communicates, and if something has no duration that thing does not exist.Clete said:The concept of existence itself already concedes the existence of time (i.e. duration) but not necessarily that of distance.
Resting in Him,
Clete
How so?
If distance =0, then either rate or time has to equal 0.
No, of course it didn't, but the principle still worked even if the words and symbols used to communicate them didn't. There was, for example, three persons in the Trinity even before the word "three" or the number itself existed. And had there been, hypothetically speaking of course, one more person in the Godhead, there would have been four and so on. Logic worked before the word logic ever existed.So, the line of real numbers existed?
Well, it means more than a few, and if as you say, God's power is enough to ensure most will be saved, then this result is by God's decision. And then "you are not far from the kingdom of Calvinism"!Lee, I didn't say anything about God making people get saved. Doesn't Revelation talk about Satan tempting people in that kingdom? "All" is a superlative.
Yes, and how can "all Israel" being saved be known? What, if only a few are still being saved, then most of them at that time have no choice?And I know there are 2 groups of remnants here. Paul says we, the body of Christ (gentile believers), are one and compares our usefulness to the remnant of Elijah's day. Both, though different, are used to save "all" Israel.
Fine. It's now necessary that I freely choose T.