Yorzhik said:
"Nothing is outside of God's provincial control, but there was an event that was not exhaustively decreed but simply allowed to happen in it's own time? How do you square those two?"
Ask Mr. Religion said:
The distinction is related to the decretive and perceptive will of God.
No, it's related to the decretive will of God and God's provincial control. We can get to God's perceptive will later.
AMR continues:
The former is always achieved. The latter can be thwarted by self-determining agency. In other words, what God wants (decretively) He will always get. What God desires (preceptively) may not occur. See
here for a more thorough discussion. Moreover, we should not confuse providence and the decree of God. Providence is the mechanism bringing about the execution of God's decree.
I read the link. Not only does it not answer the question, but I responded to it in that thread and you didn't respond back. In that thread, the question I had in my response was "Does God know His decretive will, and can God communicate?". I think the question is rhetorical, but it leaves us with valid reasons to question if you are proposing a God that can do the logically absurd.
Also, it seems to me that you think I just don't understand the concepts of decretive/perceptive will or foreknowing/foreordaining events or that providence and decree are not the same. I get them. I lived them for a great number of years of my adult life. It's just that you should acknowledge that I have valid reasons for disagreeing with these concepts.
Now; The question remains: "Nothing is outside of God's provincial control, but there was an event that was not exhaustively decreed but simply allowed to happen in its own time? How do you square those two?" You simply cannot waive a magic wand and invoke perceptive will; it isn't in the scenario you describe. What you have described is a scenario wherein the mechanism that brings about the execution of God's decrees is exhaustive, that everything must have a decree falling under God's providence, but then you turn around and also say that there is not a decree in this situation.
Of course, you can invoke God's perceptive will, but only if God's perceptive will is the mechanism that allows God to do the logically absurd. If you simply want to say "God can do the logically absurd", that's fine!
Ask Mr. Religion said:
There are proximate causes and antecedent causes. I may design (antecedent) the gun, but if you shoot someone (proximate) with it, I am not held directly responsible.
Thanks for the distinction. I would only be concerned if the causes of a choice, whether it be from antecedent or proximate causes, exist. Do these causes exist, and is God the first cause? Does God know His decretive will? Can God communicate? Can you answer questions directly?
AMR continues:
Yes, as He is sovereign, God is ultimately responsible for all things, but He is not the author of sin. Fortunately, God has a morally sufficient reason for the evil which He permits to exist.
When you say "God is ultimately responsible for all things" do you mean that God is responsible for all events? And there is no trap here, I will follow up and ask if the choice to commit the first sin was an event. And if you don't mean that God is responsible for all events, then what do you include in "all things"?
Ask Mr. Religion said:
As above, we must distinguish between proximate and antecedent causation. Adam's choice was caused by his own will. That God foreknew Adam would sin in no way makes God the author of Adam's choice.
I was going to split up these sentences, but I want to make context as easy as possible for the reader.
You mention 2 types of causation
proximate and
antecedent, and then say Adam's choice was caused by…
Adam's will? If you mention the 2 types of causation, then please follow it with a reason for mentioning it. Say "As above, we must distinguish between proximate and antecedent causation. Adam's choice was caused by proximate causes." or "As above, we must distinguish between proximate and antecedent causation. Adam's choice was caused by antecedent causes." and
then we can see your point clearly and move on to which of these types of causes were started with the First Cause - God.
The second part of your quote "That God foreknew Adam would sin in no way makes God the author of Adam's choice." brings the questions again; Does God know His decretive will? Can God communicate?
Ask Mr. Religion said:
Again, we need to not conflate providence and the decree of God. As Sovereign, nothing is outside of God's providential control. However, divine providence does not impose necessity on all things, as God wills some things to occur by necessity and others by contingencies based upon the self-determining choices of His creatures. That is, God’s sovereign will is that will of God by which He purposes or decrees whatever shall come to pass, whether He wills to accomplish this effectively (causatively), or to permit it to occur through the unrestrained agency of His creatures.
I'm not conflating the providence and decree of God. And thanks for explaining again so I can be crystal clear that I'm not conflating the two.
Yorzhik said:
Just an acknowledgement that:
1. God is the first cause
2. If there is an event outside of God's provincial control, then at least some events after it may no longer be in God's provincial control.
Ask Mr. Religion said:
This would be true if these premises were factual. They are not. But I will go along with you to see where you are headed.
So you don't agree that God is the first cause? Or you don't agree that if one event is outside of one's control, then events following that uncontrolled event may also be outside of one's control?
Do you agree with one but not the other?
What premise is not factual?
Ask Mr. Religion said:
Charmed quarks are theoretical sub-atomic particles held to be the smallest physical quantities in the universe. To decree the fall is to make it a certainty outside of the self-determined will of man. That is different from allowing the fall within the scope of self-determination. If we go further we are back to discussing
supra/infra-lapsarianisms. Then I will be having this discussion with you and Nang all night long.:sigh:
Don't worry, there's no need to go into any supra/infra discussion. I know which one you believe and we'll stick with that one for this discussion.
Ask Mr. Religion said:
If Adam had sinned at some other time, there would be no absurdity. For the actions of self-determining agents do not take place because they are foreseen, the actions are foreseen because the actions are certain to take place. In other words, Adams actions, whenever they take place, are foreseen since Adam's action was certain to take place. You cannot separate God's foreknowledge of the actions of His creatures from the actions themselves. To accomplish this feat, God would have to be an absentee landlord, the proverbial Divine Watchmaker setting things in motion and then sitting back to watch what takes place.
"If Adam had sinned at some other time", then at the time he was foreseen to sin that
wasn't some other time... he would have been doing something else. So, to say that "the actions are foreseen because the actions are certain to take place." could not also be true.
I'll state my position clearly: if you have exhaustive foreknowledge combined in the first cause, it is equal in every way to foreordaining. That would be obviously true for beings like ourselves, but for any other being to avoid it would require that they can perform the logically absurd.
I would also say that if God cannot have a new thought, then He is obviously, Himself, a part of the watch made by the Divine Watchmaker
UNLESS God can do the logically absurd. And it's OKAY for you to believe that, just don't insist that people that believe the OV don't have legitimate concerns that the SV is hogwash/hooey/wrong. Rather, you can say, "thanks brother for your concerns, I see now that my view of the nature of God, something that is foundational to all that I teach, has some serious problems."