Jaltus,
Your argument was that the "thelema" in Acts 13:22 becomes the "boule" in Acts 13:36, right?
It is my contention that it doesn't. Rather, God had a "thelema" and a "boule" for David.
God's "boule" for him, no doubt, was the establishment of the kingdom. David first established it in Hebron (2 Sam 5:3-5) then conquered Jerusalem and united all the tribes (2 Sam 5:5-7, 12).
God also had wishes and desires (thelema) for David (Acts 13:22 reads "who will do all the desires of me" literally). David did many great things: Wrote psalms, praised God, etc... But he was by no means a sinless man. He executed people (2 Sam 4:9-12), he had a sexual desire for Bathsheba, which lead him to adultery and murder, etc... in fact David prayed to God for forgiveness, and God, in His mercy, forgave him (2 Sam 12:13-14).
In short, Jaltus, David fulfilled God's counsel/purpose (Acts 13:36) by establishing the kingdom and united all the tribes (2 Sam 5:5-7, 12). David also did many of God's desires, like praising him, praying, evangelizing, etc.... but he was not a perfect man. My point is that the thelema in Acts 13:22 is completely different than the boule in Acts 13:36. One does not become the other. This becomes clear with the evidence I have shown, plus a short scan of all the instances of boule and thelema in the NT, which clearly show a semantic difference between the words.
As for Luke 7:30, you are right: I must qualify my argument, which I did: No one has rejected God's counsel as it pertains to our Salvation. Luke 7:30 says that the Pharisees "rejected God's counsel for themselves." I'm sorry if I was misleading, but I never meant to imply that God had only one single counsel. Obviously, God has predestined more than 1 event, and each of these were according to [one of] His counsel. Thus, in Luke 7:30, we see that God had a specific counsel for the Pharisees. What was it? I have no idea, do you?
At any rate, the Pharisees rejected it or "set it aside." Does this mean God didn't do it? I can't say.... maybe God did do it, and the pharisees were completely unaware of it. Sure, they could have thought that they rejected it, but do you honestly think that any human will would be able to overpower God, especially when He wants to do something?
I'm not aware that the Bible states what this counsel for the Pharisees was. If we knew, then we might know whether it actually happened or not. As such, I feel confident in my argument and belief. Besides that, there are 64 instances of thelema, to my knowledge, in the NT. There are 12 instances of boule. You have shown 2 passages in Acts and said that one becomes the other, despite the other occurences (63 and 11, respectively) that show a clear semantic difference.
God bless,
Dr. Deutsch